CISM Certified Information Security Manager – Question1149

Which of the following is the MOST likely outcome of a well-designed information security awareness course?

A.
Increased reporting of security incidents to the incident response function
B. Decreased reporting of security incidents to the incident response function
C. Decrease in the number of password resets
D. Increase in the number of identified system vulnerabilities

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation:
A well-organized information security awareness course informs all employees of existing security policies, the importance of following safe practices for data security anil the need to report any possible security incidents to the appropriate individuals in the organization. The other choices would not be the likely outcomes.

CISM Certified Information Security Manager – Question1148

Data owners will determine what access and authorizations users will have by:

A.
delegating authority to data custodian.
B. cloning existing user accounts.
C. determining hierarchical preferences.
D. mapping to business needs.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Explanation:
Access and authorizations should be based on business needs. Data custodians implement the decisions made by data owners. Access and authorizations are not to be assigned by cloning existing user accounts or determining hierarchical preferences. By cloning, users may obtain more access rights and privileges than is required to do their job. Hierarchical preferences may be based on individual preferences and not on business needs.

CISM Certified Information Security Manager – Question1147

Which of the following is the MOST effective at preventing an unauthorized individual from following an authorized person through a secured entrance (tailgating or piggybacking)?

A.
Card-key door locks
B. Photo identification
C. Biometric scanners
D. Awareness training

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Explanation: Awareness training would most likely result in any attempted tailgating being challenged by the authorized employee. The other choices are physical controls which by themselves would not be effective against tailgating.

CISM Certified Information Security Manager – Question1146

What is the MOS T cost-effective means of improving security awareness of staff personnel?

A.
Employee monetary incentives
B. User education and training
C. A zero-tolerance security policy
D. Reporting of security infractions

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation:
User education and training is the most cost-effective means of influencing staff to improve security since personnel are the weakest link in security. Incentives perform poorly without user education and training. A zero-tolerance security policy would not be as good as education and training. Users would not have the knowledge to accurately interpret and report violations without user education and training.

CISM Certified Information Security Manager – Question1145

An information security manager reviewing firewall rules will be MOST concerned if the firewall allows:

A.
source routing.
B. broadcast propagation.
C. unregistered ports.
D. nonstandard protocols.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation: If the firewall allows source routing, any outsider can carry out spoofing attacks by stealing the internal (private) IP addresses of the organization. Broadcast propagation, unregistered ports and nonstandard protocols do not create a significant security exposure.

CISM Certified Information Security Manager – Question1144

A third party was engaged to develop a business application. Which of the following would an information security manager BEST test for the existence of back doors?

A.
System monitoring for traffic on network ports
B. Security code reviews for the entire application
C. Reverse engineering the application binaries
D. Running the application from a high-privileged account on a test system

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation:
Security’ code reviews for the entire application is the best measure and will involve reviewing the entire source code to detect all instances of back doors. System monitoring for traffic on network ports would not be able to detect all instances of back doors and is time consuming and would take a lot of effort. Reverse engineering the application binaries may not provide any definite clues. Back doors will not surface by running the application on high-privileged accounts since back doors are usually hidden accounts in the applications.

CISM Certified Information Security Manager – Question1143

The implementation of continuous monitoring controls is the BEST option where:

A.
incidents may have a high impact and frequency
B. legislation requires strong information security controls
C. incidents may have a high impact but low frequency
D. Electronic commerce is a primary business driver

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation:
Continuous monitoring control initiatives are expensive, so they have to be used in areas where the risk is at its greatest level. These areas are the ones with high impact and high frequency of occurrence. Regulations and legislations that require tight IT security measures focus on requiring organizations to establish an IT security governance structure that manages IT security with a risk-based approach, so each organization decides which kinds of controls are implemented. Continuous monitoring is not necessarily a requirement. Measures such as contingency planning are commonly used when incidents rarely happen but have a high impact each time they happen. Continuous monitoring is unlikely to be necessary. Continuous control monitoring initiatives are not needed in all electronic commerce environments. There are some electronic commerce environments where the impact of incidents is not high enough to support the implementation of this kind of initiative.

CISM Certified Information Security Manager – Question1142

The PRIMARY reason for involving information security at each stage in the systems development life cycle (SDLC) is to identify the security implications and potential solutions required for:

A.
identifying vulnerabilities in the system.
B. sustaining the organization's security posture.
C. the existing systems that will be affected.
D. complying with segregation of duties.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation:
It is important to maintain the organization’s security posture at all times. The focus should not be confined to the new system being developed or acquired, or to the existing systems in use. Segregation of duties is only part of a solution to improving the security of the systems, not the primary reason to involve security in the systems development life cycle (SDLC).

CISM Certified Information Security Manager – Question1141

When defining a service level agreement (SLA) regarding the level of data confidentiality that is handled by a third-party service provider, the BEST indicator of compliance would be the:

A.
access control matrix.
B. encryption strength.
C. authentication mechanism.
D. data repository.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation:
The access control matrix is the best indicator of the level of compliance with the service level agreement (SLA) data confidentiality clauses. Encryption strength, authentication mechanism and data repository might be defined in the SLA but are not confidentiality compliance indicators.

CISM Certified Information Security Manager – Question1140

Several business units reported problems with their systems after multiple security patches were deployed. The FIRST step in handling this problem would be to:

A.
assess the problems and institute rollback procedures, if needed.
B. disconnect the systems from the network until the problems are corrected.
C. immediately uninstall the patches from these systems.
D. immediately contact the vendor regarding the problems that occurred.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation: Assessing the problems and instituting rollback procedures as needed would be the best course of action. Choices B and C would not identify where the problem was, and may in fact make the problem worse. Choice D is part of the assessment.