Explanation:
The risk response process is triggered when a risk exceeds the enterprise’s risk tolerance level. The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of an objective is termed as risk tolerance. In other words, risk tolerance is the acceptable deviation from the level set by the risk appetite and business objectives.
Risk tolerance is defined at the enterprise level by the board and clearly communicated to all stakeholders. A process should be in place to review and approve any exceptions to such standards.
Incorrect Answers: A, C: Risk appetite level is not relevant in triggering of risk response process. Risk appetite is the amount of risk a company or other entity is willing to accept in pursuit of its mission. This is the responsibility of the board to decide risk appetite of an enterprise. When considering the risk appetite levels for the enterprise, the following two major factors should be taken into account:

• The enterprise’s objective capacity to absorb loss, e.g., financial loss, reputation damage, etc.
• The culture towards risk taking-cautious or aggressive. In other words, the amount of loss the enterprise wants to accept in pursue of its objective fulfillment.

D: Risk response process is triggered when the risk level increases the risk tolerance level of the enterprise, and not when it just equates the risk tolerance level.

Explanation:
Audit and accountability family of controls helps an organization implement an effective audit program. It provides details on how to determine what to audit. It provides details on how to protect the audit logs. It also includes information on using audit logs for non-repudiation.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Access Control is the family of controls that helps an organization implement effective access control. They ensure that users have the rights and permissions they need to perform their jobs, and no more. It includes principles such as least privilege and separation of duties. Audit and accountability family of controls do not help in implementing effective access control.

Explanation: An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network and/or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a Management Station. Some systems may attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor expected of a monitoring system. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, and reporting attempts. In addition, organizations use IDPS for other purposes, such as identifying problems with security policies, documenting existing threats, and deterring individuals from violating security policies. As IDS detects and gives warning when the violation of security policies of the enterprise occurs, it is a detective control.
Incorrect Answers:
B: These controls make effort to reduce the impact of a threat from problems discovered by detective controls. As IDS only detects but not reduce the impact, hence it is not a corrective control.
C: As IDS only detects the problem when it occurs and not prior of its occurrence, it is not preventive control.
D: These controls make efforts to overcome the impact of the incident on the business, hence IDS is not a recovery control.

Explanation: Low-impact, low-probability risks can be added to the low priority risk watch list.
Incorrect Answers:
A: These risks are not dismissed; they are still documented on the low priority risk watch list.
B: While these risks may be accepted, they should be documented on the low priority risk watch list. This list will be periodically reviewed and the status of the risks may change.
D: Not every risk demands a risk response, so this choice is incorrect.

Explanation:
Blame culture should be avoided. It is the most effective inhibitor of relevant and efficient communication. In a blame culture, business units tend to point the finger at IT when projects are not delivered on time or do not meet expectations. In doing so, they fail to realize how the business unit’s involvement up front affects project success. In extreme cases, the business unit may assign blame for a failure to meet the expectations that the unit never clearly communicated. Executive leadership must identify and quickly control a blame culture if collaboration is to be fostered throughout the enterprise.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is the consequence of poor risk communication, not the inhibitor of effective communication.
B: This is the consequence of poor risk communication, not the inhibitor of effective communication.
D: Misalignment between real risk appetite and translation into policies is an inhibitor of effective communication, but is not a prominent as existence of blame culture.

Explanation: Review of the enterprise’s strategic plan is the first step in designing effective IS controls that would fit the enterprise’s long-term plans.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The IT strategic plan exists to support the enterprise’s strategic plan but is not solely considered while designing information system control.
B: Review of the existing IT environment is also useful and necessary but is not the first step that needs to be undertaken.
D: The present IT budget is just one of the components of the strategic plan.

Explanation:
Loss of integrity refers to the following types of losses:

• An e-mail message is modified in transit A virus infects a file
• Someone makes unauthorized changes to a Web site

Incorrect Answers:
A: Someone sees company’s secret formula or password comes under loss of confidentiality.

Explanation: The activity duration estimates review is valuable in identifying risks associated to the time allowances for the activities or projects as a whole, with a width of the range indicating the degrees of risk.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The activity cost estimates review is valuable in identifying risks as it provides a quantitative assessment of the expected cost to complete scheduled activities and is expressed as a range, with a width of the range indicating the degrees of risk.
C: A Risk management plan is a document arranged by a project manager to estimate the effectiveness, predict risks, and build response plans to mitigate them. It also consists of the risk assessment matrix.
D: It describes how the schedule contingencies will be reported and assessed.

Explanation: When you are hiring a third party to own risk, it is known as transference risk response. Risk transfer means that impact of risk is reduced by transferring or otherwise sharing a portion of the risk with an external organization or another internal entity. Transfer of risk can occur in many forms but is most effective when dealing with financial risks.
Insurance is one form of risk transfer.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The act of spending money to reduce a risk probability and impact is known as mitigation.
C: When extra activities are introduced into the project to avoid the risk, this is an example of avoidance.
D: Exploit is a strategy that may be selected for risks with positive impacts where the organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized.

Explanation: All risks, their responses, and other characteristics are documented in the risk register. As the project progresses and the conditions of the risk events change, the risk register should be updated to reflect the risk conditions.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The risk management plan addresses the project management’s approach to risk management, risk identification, analysis, response, and control.
B: The project management plan is the overarching plan for the project, not the specifics of the risk responses and risk identification.
C: The risk response plan only addresses the planned risk responses for the identified risk events in the risk register.