Wendy is about to perform qualitative risk analysis on the identified risks within her project. Which one of the following will NOT help Wendy to perform this project management activity?

A. Stakeholder register
B. Risk register
C. Project scope statement
D. Risk management plan

Jenny is the project manager of the NHJ Project for her company. She has identified several positive risk events within the project and she thinks these events can save the project time and money. You, a new team member wants to know that how many risk responses are available for a positive risk event. What will Jenny reply to you?

A. Four
B. Seven
C. Acceptance is the only risk response for positive risk events.
D. Three

Which of the following RMF phases is known as risk analysis?

A. Phase 2
B. Phase 1
C. Phase 0
D. Phase 3

You are the project manager for your company and a new change request has been approved for your project. This change request, however, has introduced several new risks to the project. You have communicated these risk events and the project stakeholders understand the possible effects these risks could have on your project. You elect to create a mitigation response for the identified risk events. Where will you record the mitigation response?

A. Project management plan
B. Risk management plan
C. Risk log
D. Risk register

Which of the following processes is a structured approach to transitioning individuals, teams, and organizations from a current state to a desired future state?

A. Procurement management
B. Change management
C. Risk management
D. Configuration management

Amy is the project manager for her company. In her current project the organization has a very low tolerance for risk events that will affect the project schedule. Management has asked Amy to consider the affect of all the risks on the project schedule. What approach can Amy take to create a bias against risks that will affect the schedule of the project?

A. She can have the project team pad their time estimates to alleviate delays in the project schedule.
B. She can create an overall project rating scheme to reflect the bias towards risks that affect the project schedule.
C. She can filter all risks based on their affect on schedule versus other project objectives.
D. She can shift risk-laden activities that affect the project schedule from the critical path as much as possible.

Which of the following is used to indicate that the software has met a defined quality level and is ready for mass distribution either by electronic means or by physical media?

A. RTM
B. CRO
C. DAA
D. ATM

Gary is the project manager for his project. He and the project team have completed the qualitative risk analysis process and are about to enter the quantitative risk analysis process when Mary, the project sponsor, wants to know what quantitative risk analysis will review. Which of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis will review?

A. The quantitative risk analysis seeks to determine the true cost of each identified risk event and the probability of each risk event to determine the risk exposure.
B. The quantitative risk analysis process will review risk events for their probability and impact on the project objectives.
C. The quantitative risk analysis reviews the results of risk identification and prepares the project for risk response management.
D. The quantitative risk analysis process will analyze the effect of risk events that may substantially impact the project's competing demands.

Which of the following is a 1996 United States federal law, designed to improve the way the federal government acquires, uses, and disposes information technology?

A. Computer Misuse Act
B. Lanham Act
C. Clinger-Cohen Act
D. Paperwork Reduction Act

A Web-based credit card company had collected financial and personal details of Mark before issuing him a credit card. The company has now provided Mark's financial and personal details to another company. Which of the following Internet laws has the credit card issuing company violated?

A. Security law
B. Privacy law
C. Copyright law
D. Trademark law