Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question252

In order to comply with regulatory requirements, which of the following secure erasure methods would be available to a cloud customer using volume storage within the IaaS service model?

A.
Demagnetizing
B. Shredding
C. Degaussing
D. Cryptographic erasure

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Explanation: Cryptographic erasure is a secure method to destroy data by destroying the keys that were used to encrypt it. This method is universally available for volume storage on IaaS and is also extremely quick. Shredding, degaussing, and demagnetizing are all physically destructive methods that would not be permitted within a cloud environment using shared resources.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question251

With finite resources available within a cloud, even the largest cloud providers will at times need to determine which customers will receive additional resources first.
What is the term associated with this determination?

A.
Weighting
B. Prioritization
C. Shares
D. Scoring

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Explanation: Shares are used within a cloud environment to prioritize resource allocation when customer requests exceed the available resources. Cloud providers utilize shares by assigning a priority score to each customer and allocating resources to those with the highest scores first. Scoring is a component of shares that determines the actual order in which to allocate resources. Neither weighting nor prioritization is the correct term in this case.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question250

Which of the following threat types involves the sending of invalid and manipulated requests through a user's client to execute commands on the application under their own credentials?

A.
Injection
B. Cross-site request forgery
C. Missing function-level access control
D. Cross-site scripting

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation: A cross-site request forgery (CSRF) attack forces a client that a user has used to authenticate to an application to send forged requests under the user’s own credentials to execute commands and requests that the application thinks are coming from a trusted client and user. Although this type of attack cannot be used to steal data directly because the attacker has no way to see the results of the commands, it does open other ways to compromise an application. Missing function-level access control exists where an application only checks for authorization during the initial login process and does not further validate with each function call. An injection attack is where a malicious actor sends commands or other arbitrary data through input and data fields with the intent of having the application or system execute the code as part of its normal processing and queries. Cross-site scripting occurs when an attacker is able to send untrusted data to a user’s browser without going through validation processes.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question249

Which of the following is considered an internal redundancy for a data center?

A.
Power feeds
B. Chillers
C. Network circuits
D. Generators

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation: Chillers and cooling systems are internal to a data center and its operations, and as such they are considered an internal redundancy. Power feeds, network circuits, and generators are all external to a data center and provide utility services to them, which makes them an external redundancy.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question248

Which of the following threat types can occur when baselines are not appropriately applied or when unauthorized changes are made?

A.
Security misconfiguration
B. Insecure direct object references
C. Unvalidated redirects and forwards
D. Sensitive data exposure

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation: Security misconfigurations occur when applications and systems are not properly configured or maintained in a secure manner. This can be due to a shortcoming in security baselines or configurations, unauthorized changes to system configurations, or a failure to patch and upgrade systems as the vendor releases security patches. Insecure direct object references occur when code references aspects of the infrastructure, especially internal or private systems, and an attacker can use that knowledge to glean more information about the infrastructure. Unvalidated redirects and forwards occur when an application has functions to forward users to other sites, and these functions are not properly secured to validate the data and redirect requests, allowing spoofing for malware or phishing attacks. Sensitive data exposure occurs when an application does not use sufficient encryption and other security controls to protect sensitive application data.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question247

If a cloud computing customer wishes to guarantee that a minimum level of resources will always be available, which of the following set of services would compromise the reservation?

A.
Memory and networking
B. CPU and software
C. CPU and storage
D. CPU and memory

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Explanation: A reservation guarantees to a cloud customer that they will have access to a minimal level of resources to run their systems, which will help mitigate against DoS attacks or systems that consume high levels of resources. A reservation pertains to memory and CPU resources. Under the concept of a reservation, memory and CPU are the guaranteed resources, but storage and networking are not included even though they are core components of cloud computing. Software would be out of scope for a guarantee and doesn’t really pertain to the concept.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question246

You are working for a cloud service provider and receive an eDiscovery order pertaining to one of your customers.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate action to take first?

A.
Take a shapshot of the virtual machines
B. Escrow the encryption keys
C. Copy the data
D. Notify the customer

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Explanation: When a cloud service provider receives an eDiscovery order pertaining to one of their customers, the first action they must take is to notify the customer. This allows the customer to be aware of what was received, as well as to conduct a review to determine if any challenges are necessary or warranted. Taking snapshots of virtual machines, copying data, and escrowing encryption keys are all processes involved in the actual collection of data and should not be performed until the customer has been notified of the request.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question245

Which data state would be most likely to use TLS as a protection mechanism?

A.
Data in use
B. Data at rest
C. Archived
D. Data in transit

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Explanation: TLS would be used with data in transit, when packets are exchanged between clients or services and sent across a network. During the data-in-use state, the data is already protected via a technology such as TLS as it is exchanged over the network and then relies on other technologies such as digital signatures for protection while being used. The data-at-rest state primarily uses encryption for stored file objects. Archived data would be the same as data at rest.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question244

Which of the following roles would be responsible for managing memberships in federations and the use and integration of federated services?

A.
Inter-cloud provider
B. Cloud service business manager
C. Cloud service administrator
D. Cloud service integrator

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation: The inter-cloud provider is responsible for peering with other cloud services and providers, as well as overseeing and managing federations and federated services. A cloud service administrator is responsible for testing, monitoring, and securing cloud services, as well as providing usage reporting and dealing with service problems. The cloud service integrator is responsible for connecting existing systems and services with a cloud. The cloud service business manager is responsible for overseeing the billing, auditing, and purchasing of cloud services.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question243

With a cloud service category where the cloud customer is responsible for deploying all services, systems, and components needed for their applications, which of the following storage types are MOST likely to be available to them?

A.
Structured and hierarchical
B. Volume and object
C. Volume and database
D. Structured and unstructured

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation: The question is describing the Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) cloud offering, and as such, the volume and object storage types will be available to the customer. Structured and unstructured are storage types associated with PaaS, and although the other answers present similar-sounding storage types, they are a mix of real and fake names.