Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question092

What controls the formatting and security settings of a volume storage system within a cloud environment?

A.
Management plane
B. SAN host controller
C. Hypervisor
D. Operating system of the host

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Explanation: Once a storage LUN is allocated to a virtual machine, the operating system of that virtual machine will format, manage, and control the file system and security of the data on that LUN.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question091

What is the first stage of the cloud data lifecycle where security controls can be implemented?

A.
Use
B. Store
C. Share
D. Create

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation: The “store” phase of the cloud data lifecycle, which typically occurs simultaneously with the “create” phase, or immediately thereafter, is the first phase where security controls can be implemented. In most case, the manner in which the data is stored will be based on its classification.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question090

Which of the following is the optimal humidity level for a data center, per the guidelines established by the America Society of Heating, Refrigeration, and Air Conditioning Engineers (ASHRAE)?

A.
30-50 percent relative humidity
B. 50-75 percent relative humidity
C. 20-40 percent relative humidity
D. 40-60 percent relative humidity

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Explanation: The guidelines from ASHRAE establish 40-60 percent relative humidity as optimal for a data center.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question089

Which of the following is considered an external redundancy for a data center?

A.
Power feeds to rack
B. Generators
C. Power distribution units
D. Storage systems

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation: Generators are considered an external redundancy to a data center. Power distribution units (PDUs), storage systems, and power feeds to racks are all internal to a data center, and as such they are considered internal redundancies.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question088

Which of the following roles is responsible for gathering metrics on cloud services and managing cloud deployments and the deployment processes?

A.
Cloud service business manager
B. Cloud service operations manager
C. Cloud service manager
D. Cloud service deployment manager

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Explanation: The cloud service deployment manager is responsible for gathering metrics on cloud services, managing cloud deployments and the deployment process, and defining the environments and processes.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question087

Which technology is NOT commonly used for security with data in transit?

A.
DNSSEC
B. IPsec
C. VPN
D. HTTPS

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation: DNSSEC relates to the integrity of DNS resolutions and the prevention of spoofing or redirection, and does not pertain to the actual security of transmissions or the protection of data.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question086

Which of the following would NOT be considered part of resource pooling with an Infrastructure as a Service implementation?

A.
Storage
B. Application
C. Mamory
D. CPU

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service pools the compute resources for platforms and applications to build upon, including CPU, memory,
and storage. Applications are not part of an IaaS offering from the cloud provider.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question085

Which of the following is the biggest concern or challenge with using encryption?

A.
Dependence on keys
B. Cipher strength
C. Efficiency
D. Protocol standards

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation: No matter what kind of application, system, or hosting model used, encryption is 100 percent dependent on encryption keys. Properly securing the keys and the exchange of them is the biggest and most important challenge of encryption systems.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question084

Which of the following threat types involves an application developer leaving references to internal information and configurations in code that is exposed to the client?

A.
Sensitive data exposure
B. Security misconfiguration
C. Insecure direct object references
D. Unvalidated redirect and forwards

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Explanation: An insecure direct object reference occurs when a developer has in their code a reference to something on the application side, such as a database key, the directory structure of the application, configuration information about the hosting system, or any other information that pertains to the workings of the application that should not be exposed to users or the network. Unvalidated redirects and forwards occur when an application has functions to forward users to other sites, and these functions are not properly secured to validate the data and redirect requests, allowing spoofing for malware of phishing attacks. Sensitive data exposure occurs when an application does not use sufficient encryption and other security controls to protect sensitive application data. Security misconfigurations occur when applications and systems are not properly configured or maintained in a secure manner.

Certified Cloud Security Professional – CCSP – Question083

When is a virtual machine susceptible to attacks while a physical server in the same state would not be?

A.
When it is behind a WAF
B. When it is behind an IPS
C. When it is not patched
D. When it is powered off

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Explanation: A virtual machine is ultimately an image file residing a file system. Because of this, even when a virtual machine is “powered off,” it is still susceptible to attacks and modification. A physical server that is powered off would not be susceptible to attacks.