Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question245

"Enhancing the Development Life Cycle to Produce Secure Software" summarizes the tools and practices that are helpful in producing secure software. What are these tools and practices? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A.
Leverage attack patterns
B. Compiler security checking and enforcement
C. Tools to detect memory violations
D. Safe software libraries
E. Code for reuse and maintainability

Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation:

Explanation: The tools and practices that are helpful in producing secure software are summarized in the report “Enhancing the Development Life Cycle to Produce Secure Software”. The tools and practices are as follows: Compiler security checking and enforcement Safe software libraries Runtime error checking and safety enforcement Tools to detect memory violations Code obfuscation Answer: A and E are incorrect. These are secure coding principles and practices of defensive coding.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question244

Which of the following are the basic characteristics of declarative security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A.
It is a container-managed security.
B. It has a runtime environment.
C. All security constraints are stated in the configuration files.
D. The security policies are applied at the deployment time.

Correct Answer: ABC

Explanation:

Explanation: The following are the basic characteristics of declarative security: In declarative security, programming is not required. All security constraints are stated in the configuration files. It is a container-managed security. The application server manages the enforcing process of security constraints. It has a runtime environment. The security policies for runtime environment are represented by the deployment descriptor. It can support different environments, such as development, testing, and production. Answer: D is incorrect. It is the characteristic of programmatic security.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question243

An assistant from the HR Department calls you to ask the Service Hours & Maintenance Slots for your ERP system. In which document will you most probably find this information?

A.
Service Level Agreement
B. Release Policy
C. Service Level Requirements
D. Underpinning Contract

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation: You will most probably find this information in the Service Level Agreement document. Amongst other information, SLA contains information about the agreed Service Hours and maintenance slots for any particular Service. Service Level Agreement (frequently abbreviated as SLA) is a part of a service contract where the level of service is formally defined. In practice, the term SLA is sometimes used to refer to the contracted delivery time (of the service) or performance. Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a negotiated agreement between two parties where one is the customer and the other is the service provider. This can be a legally binding formal or informal ‘contract’. Contracts between the Service Provider and other third parties are often (incorrectly) called SLAs, as the level of service has been set by the (principal) customer there can be no ‘agreement’ between third parties (these agreements are simply a ‘contract’). Operating Level Agreements or OLA(s) however, may be used by internal groups to support SLA (s). Answer: B is incorrect. Release Policy is a set of rules for deploying releases into the live operational environment, defining different approaches for releases depending on their urgency and impact. Answer: C is incorrect. The Service Level Requirements document contains the requirements for a service from the client viewpoint, defining detailed service level targets, mutual responsibilities, and other requirements specific to a certain group of customers. Answer: D is incorrect. Underpinning Contract (UC) is a contract between an IT service provider and a third party. In another way, it is an agreement between the IT organization and an external provider about the delivery of one or more services. The third party provides services that support the delivery of a service to a customer. The Underpinning Contract defines targets and responsibilities that are required to meet agreed Service Level targets in an SLA.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question242

Which of the following plans is documented and organized for emergency response, backup operations, and recovery maintained by an activity as part of its security program that will ensure the availability of critical resources and facilitates the continuity of operations in an emergency situation?

A.
Continuity Of Operations Plan
B. Business Continuity Plan
C. Contingency Plan
D. Disaster Recovery Plan

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Explanation: Contingency plan is prepared and documented for emergency response, backup operations, and recovery maintained by an activity as the element of its security program that will ensure the availability of critical resources and facilitates the continuity of operations in an emergency situation. A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and “triggers” for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption. Answer: D is incorrect. A disaster recovery plan should contain data, hardware, and software that can be critical for a business. It should also include the plan for sudden loss such as hard disc crash. The business should use backup and data recovery utilities to limit the loss of data. Answer: A is incorrect. The Continuity Of Operation Plan (COOP) refers to the preparations and institutions maintained by the United States government, providing survival of federal government operations in the case of catastrophic events. It provides procedures and capabilities to sustain an organization’s essential. COOP is the procedure documented to ensure persistent critical operations throughout any period where normal operations are unattainable. Answer: B is incorrect. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question241

SIMULATION
Fill in the blank with an appropriate security type. applies the internal security policies of the software applications when they are deployed.
Your Response: ______________________________

Correct Answer: Programmatic security

Explanation:

Explanation: Programmatic security applies the internal security policies of the software applications when they are deployed. In this type of security, the code of the software application controls the security behavior, and authentication decisions are made based on the business logic, such as the user role or the task performed by the user in a specific security context.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question240

Which of the following is a patch management utility that scans one or more computers on a network and alerts a user if any important Microsoft security patches are missing and also provides links that enable those missing patches to be downloaded and installed?

A.
MABS
B. ASNB
C. MBSA
D. IDMS

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Explanation: Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) is a tool that includes a graphical and command line interface that can perform local or remote scans of Windows systems. It runs on computers running Windows 2000, Windows XP, or Windows Server 2003 operating system. MBSA scans for common security misconfigurations in Windows NT 4.0, Windows 2000, Windows XP, Windows Server 2003, Internet Information Server (IIS) 4.0 and above, SQL Server 7.0 and 2000, and Office 2000 and 2002. It also scans for missing hot fixes in several Microsoft products, such as Windows 2000, Windows XP, SQL Server etc. Answer: B, D, and A are incorrect. These are invalid options.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question239

Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) represents an organization's loss from a single threat. Which of the following formulas best describes the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)?

A.
SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF)
B. SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
C. SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Exposure Factor (EF)
D. SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation: Single Loss Expectancy is a term related to Risk Management and Risk Assessment. It can be defined as the monetary value expected from the occurrence of a risk on an asset. It is mathematically expressed as follows: Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF) where the Exposure Factor is represented in the impact of the risk over the asset, or percentage of asset lost. As an example, if the Asset Value is reduced two thirds, the exposure factor value is .66. If the asset is completely lost, the Exposure Factor is 1.0. The result is a monetary value in the same unit as the Single Loss Expectancy is expressed. Answer: C, D, and B are incorrect. These are not valid formulas of SLE.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question238

Which of the following DoD policies establishes policies and assigns responsibilities to achieve DoD IA through a defense-in-depth approach that integrates the capabilities of personnel, operations, and technology, and supports the evolution to network-centric warfare?

A.
DoDI 5200.40
B. DoD 8500.1 Information Assurance (IA)
C. DoD 8510.1-M DITSCAP
D. DoD 8500.2 Information Assurance Implementation

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation: DoD 8500.1 Information Assurance (IA) sets up policies and allots responsibilities to achieve DoD IA through a defense-in-depth approach that integrates the capabilities of personnel, operations, and technology, and supports the evolution to network-centric warfare. DoD 8500.1 also summarizes the roles and responsibilities for the persons responsible for carrying out the IA policies. Answer: D is incorrect. The DoD 8500.2 Information Assurance Implementation pursues 8500.1. It provides assistance on how to implement policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for applying integrated, layered protection of the DoD information systems and networks. DoD Instruction 8500.2 allots tasks and sets procedures for applying integrated layered protection of the DOD information systems and networks in accordance with the DoD 8500.1 policy. It also provides some important guidelines on how to implement an IA program. Answer: A is incorrect. DoDI 5200.40 executes the policy, assigns responsibilities, and recommends procedures under reference for Certification and Accreditation(C&A) of information technology (IT). Answer: C is incorrect. DoD 8510.1-M DITSCAP provides standardized activities leading to accreditation, and establishes a process and management baseline.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question237

In which of the following levels of exception safety are operations succeeded with full guarantee and fulfill all needs in the presence of exceptional situations?

A.
Commit or rollback semantics
B. Minimal exception safety
C. Failure transparency
D. Basic exception safety

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Explanation: Failure transparency is the best level of exception safety. In this level, operations are succeeded with full guarantee and fulfill all needs in the presence of exceptional situations. Failure transparency does not throw the exception further up even when an exception occurs. This level is also known as no throw guarantee.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question236

Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a particular message?

A.
Confidentiality
B. Non-repudiation
C. Authentication
D. Integrity

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation: Non-repudiation is a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a message. It provides an evidence of the identity of the senderand message integrity. It also prevents a person from denying the submission or delivery of the message and the integrity of its contents. Answer: C is incorrect. Authentication is a process of verifying the identity of a person or network host. Answer: A is incorrect. Confidentiality ensures that no one can read a message except the intended receiver. Answer: D is incorrect. Integrity assures the receiver that the received message has not been altered in any way from the original.