Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question214

Which of the following statements reflect the 'Code of Ethics Canons' in the '(ISC)2 Code of Ethics'? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A.
Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally.
B. Give guidance for resolving good versus good and bad versus bad dilemmas.
C. Provide diligent and competent service to principals.
D. Protect society, the commonwealth, and the infrastructure.

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation:

Explanation: The Code of Ethics Canons in (ISC)2 code of ethics are as follows: Protect society, the commonwealth, and the infrastructure. Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally. Provide diligent and competent service to principals. Advance and protect the profession.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question213

Shoulder surfing is a type of in-person attack in which the attacker gathers information about the premises of an organization. This attack is often performed by looking surreptitiously at the keyboard of an employee's computer while he is typing in his password at any access point such as a terminal/Web site. Which of the following is violated in a shoulder surfing attack?

A.
Integrity
B. Availability
C. Confidentiality
D. Authenticity

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Explanation: Confidentiality is violated in a shoulder surfing attack. The CIA triad provides the following three tenets for which security practices are measured: Confidentiality: It is the property of preventing disclosure of information to unauthorized individuals or systems. Breaches of confidentiality take many forms. Permitting someone to look over your shoulder at your computer screen while you have confidential data displayed on it could be a breach of confidentiality. If a laptop computer containing sensitive information about a company’s employees is stolen or sold, it could result in a breach of confidentiality. Integrity: It means that data cannot be modified without authorization. Integrity is violated when an employee accidentally or with malicious intent deletes important data files, when a computer virus infects a computer, when an employee is able to modify his own salary in a payroll database, when an unauthorized user vandalizes a web site, when someone is able to cast a very large number of votes in an online poll, and so on. Availability: It means that data must be available at every time when it is needed. Answer: D is incorrect. Authenticity is not a tenet of the CIA triad.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question212

Penetration tests are sometimes called white hat attacks because in a pen test, the good guys are attempting to break in. What are the different categories of penetration testing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A.
Open-box
B. Closed-box
C. Zero-knowledge test
D. Full-box
E. Full-knowledge test
F. Partial-knowledge test

Correct Answer: ABCEF

Explanation:

Explanation: The different categories of penetration testing are as follows: Open-box: In this category of penetration testing, testers have access to internal system code. This mode is basically suited for Unix or Linux. Closed-box: In this category of penetration testing, testers do not have access to closed systems. This method is good for closed systems. Zero-knowledge test: In this category of penetration testing, testers have to acquire information from scratch and they are not supplied with information concerning the IT system. Partial-knowledge test: In this category of penetration testing, testers have knowledge that may be applicable to a specific type of attack and associated vulnerabilities. Full-knowledge test: In this category of penetration testing, testers have massive knowledge concerning the information system to be evaluated. Answer: D is incorrect. There is no such category of penetration testing.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question211

John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-aresecure.com. He finds that the We-are-secure server is vulnerable to attacks. As a countermeasure, he suggests that the Network Administrator should remove the IPP printing capability from the server. He is suggesting this as a countermeasure against __________.

A.
SNMP enumeration
B. IIS buffer overflow
C. NetBIOS NULL session
D. DNS zone transfer

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation: Removing the IPP printing capability from a server is a good countermeasure against an IIS buffer overflow attack. A Network Administrator should take the following steps to prevent a Web server from IIS buffer overflow attacks: Conduct frequent scans for server vulnerabilities. Install the upgrades of Microsoft service packs. Implement effective firewalls. Apply URLScan and IISLockdown utilities. Remove the IPP printing capability. Answer: D is incorrect. The following are the DNS zone transfer countermeasures: Do not allow DNS zone transfer using the DNS property sheet: a.Open DNS. b.Right-click a DNS zone and click Properties. c.On the Zone Transfer tab, clear the Allow zone transfers check box. Configure the master DNS server to allow zone transfers only from secondary DNS servers: a.Open DNS. b.Right-click a DNS zone and click Properties. c.On the zone transfer tab, select the Allow zone transfers check box, and then do one of the following: To allow zone transfers only to the DNS servers listed on the name servers tab, click on the Only to the servers listed on the Name Server tab. To allow zone transfers only to specific DNS servers, click Only to the following servers, and add the IP address of one or more servers. Deny all unauthorized inbound connections to TCP port 53. Implement DNS keys and encrypted DNS payloads. Answer: A is incorrect. The following are the countermeasures against SNMP enumeration: 1.Removing the SNMP agent or disabling the SNMP service 2.Changing the default PUBLIC community name when ‘shutting off SNMP’ is not an option 3.Implementing the Group Policy security option called Additional restrictions for anonymous connections 4.Restricting access to NULL session pipes and NULL session shares 5.Upgrading SNMP Version 1 with the latest version 6.Implementing Access control list filtering to allow only access to the read-write community from approved stations or subnets Answer: C is incorrect. NetBIOS NULL session vulnerabilities are hard to prevent, especially if NetBIOS is needed as part of the infrastructure. One or more of the following steps can be taken to limit NetBIOS NULL session vulnerabilities: 1.Null sessions require access to the TCP 139 or TCP 445 port, which can be disabled by a Network Administrator. 2.A Network Administrator can also disable SMB services entirely on individual hosts by unbinding WINS Client TCP/IP from the interface. 3.A Network Administrator can also restrict the anonymous user by editing the registry values: a.Open regedit32, and go to HKLMSYSTEM CurrentControlSetLSA. b.Choose edit > add value. Value name: RestrictAnonymous Data Type: REG_WORD Value: 2

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question210

FIPS 199 defines the three levels of potential impact on organizations: low, moderate, and high. Which of the following are the effects of loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability in a high level potential impact?

A.
The loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability might result in a major damage to organizational assets.
B. The loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability might result in severe damages like life threatening injuries or loss of life.
C. The loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability might result in major financial losses.
D. The loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability might cause severe degradation in or loss of mission capability to an extent.

Correct Answer: ABCD

Explanation:

Explanation: The following are the effects of loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability in a high level potential impact: It might cause a severe degradation in or loss of mission capability to an extent. It might result in a major damage to organizational assets. It might result in a major financial loss. It might result in severe harms such as serious life threatening injuries or loss of life.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question209

Mark is the project manager of the NHQ project in StarTech Inc. The project has an asset valued at $195,000 and is subjected to an exposure factor of 35 percent. What will be the Single Loss Expectancy of the project?

A.
$68,250
B. $92,600
C. $72,650
D. $67,250

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation: The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) of this project will be $68,250. Single Loss Expectancy is a term related to Risk Management and Risk Assessment. It can be defined as the monetary value expected from the occurrence of a risk on an asset. It is mathematically expressed as follows: Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF) where the Exposure Factor is represented in the impact of the risk over the asset, or percentage of asset lost. As an example, if the Asset Value is reduced two thirds, the exposure factor value is .66. If the asset is completely lost, the Exposure Factor is 1.0. The result is a monetary value in the same unit as the Single Loss Expectancy is expressed. Here, it is as follows:
SLE = Asset Value * Exposure Factor
= 195,000 * 0.35
= $68,250
Answer: B, C, and D are incorrect. These are not valid SLE’s for this project.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question208

Rob is the project manager of the IDLK Project for his company. This project has a budget of $5,600,000 and is expected to last 18 months. Rob has learned that a new law may affect how the project is allowed to proceed – even though the organization has already invested over $750,000 in the project. What risk response is the most appropriate for this instance?

A.
Transference
B. Enhance
C. Mitigation
D. Acceptance

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Explanation: At this point all that Rob can likely do is accepting the risk event. Because this is an external risk, there is little that Rob can do other than document the risk and share the new with management and the project stakeholders. If the law is passed then Rob can choose the most appropriate way for the project to continue. Acceptance response is a part of Risk Response planning process. Acceptance response delineates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk does occur. Acceptance response to a risk event is a strategy that can be used for risks that pose either threats or opportunities. Acceptance response can be of two types: Passive acceptance: It is a strategy in which no plans are made to try or avoid or mitigate the risk. Active acceptance: Such responses include developing contingency reserves to deal with risks, in case they occur. Acceptance is the only response for both threats and opportunities. Answer: B is incorrect. Mitigation aims to lower the probability and/or impact of the risk event. Answer: C is incorrect. Transference transfers the ownership of the risk event to a third party, usually through a contractual agreement. Answer: D is incorrect. Enhance is a risk response that tries to increase the probability and/or impact of the positive risk event.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question207

Which of the following security design principles supports comprehensive and simple design and implementation of protection mechanisms, so that an unintended access path does not exist or can be readily identified and eliminated?

A.
Least privilege
B. Economy of mechanism
C. Psychological acceptability
D. Separation of duties

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation: The economy of mechanism is a security design principle, which supports simple and comprehensive design and implementation of protection mechanisms, so that an unintended access path does not exist or can be readily identified and eliminated. Answer: D is incorrect. Separation of duties defines that the completion of a specific sensitivity activity or access to sensitive object depends on the satisfaction of multiple conditions. Answer: C is incorrect. Psychological acceptability defines the ease of use and intuitiveness of the user interface that controls and interacts with the access control mechanisms. Answer: A is incorrect. Least privilege maintains that an individual, process, or other type of entity should be given the minimum privileges and resources for the minimum period of time required to complete a task.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question206

Which of the following classification levels defines the information that, if disclosed to the unauthorized parties, could be reasonably expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security?

A.
Secret information
B. Unclassified information
C. Confidential information
D. Top Secret information

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Explanation: Top Secret information is the highest level of classification of material on a national level. Such material would cause “exceptionally grave damage” to national security if publicly available. Answer: A is incorrect. Secret information is that, if disclosed to unauthorized parties, could be expected to cause serious damage to the national security, but it is not the best answer for the above question. Answer: C is incorrect. Such material would cause “damage” or be “prejudicial” to national security if publicly available. Answer: B is incorrect. Unclassified information, technically, is not a classification level, but is used for government documents that do not have a classification listed above. Such documents can sometimes be viewed by those without security clearance.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question205

Which of the following characteristics are described by the DIAP Information Readiness Assessment function? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A.
It provides for entry and storage of individual system data.
B. It performs vulnerability/threat analysis assessment.
C. It provides data needed to accurately assess IA readiness.
D. It identifies and generates IA requirements.

Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation:

Explanation: The characteristics of the DIAP Information Readiness Assessment function are as follows: It provides data needed to accurately assess IA readiness. It identifies and generates IA requirements. It performs vulnerability/threat analysis assessment. Answer: A is incorrect. It is a function performed by the ASSET system.