Explanation: The anomaly-based intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors network traffic and compares it against an established baseline. This type of IDS monitors traffic and system activity for unusual behavior based on statistics. In order to identify a malicious activity, it learns normal behavior from the baseline. The anomaly-based intrusion detection is also known as behavior-based or statistical-based intrusion detection. Answer: D is incorrect. Signature-based IDS uses a database with signatures to identify possible attacks and malicious activity. Answer: B is incorrect. A network-based IDS can be a dedicated hardware appliance, or an application running on a computer, attached to the network. It monitors all traffic in a network or traffic coming through an entry-point such as an Internet connection. Answer: A is incorrect. There is no such intrusion detection system (IDS) that is file-based.

Explanation: NIACAP has four levels of certification. These levels ensure that the appropriate C&A are performed for varying schedule and budget limitations. The certifier must analyze the system’s business functions. The certifier determines the degree of confidentiality, integrity, availability, and accountability, and then recommends one of the following NIACAP certification levels: Level 1 – Basic Security Review Level 2 – Minimum Analysis Level 3 – Detailed Analysis Level 4 – Comprehensive Analysis Answer: B and F are incorrect. No such types of levels exist.

Explanation: The first action of a management program to implement information security is to have a security program in place. The objectives of a security program are as follows: Protect the company and its assets Manage risks by identifying assets, discovering threats, and estimating the risk Provide direction for security activities by framing of information security policies, procedures, standards, guidelines and baselines Information classification Security organization Security education Answer: C is incorrect. System classification is not one of the objectives of a security program.

Explanation: Documentation control is a method of ensuring that system changes should be agreed upon before being implemented, only the proposed and approved changes are implemented, and the implementation is complete and accurate. Documentation control is involved in the strict events for proposing, monitoring, and approving system changes and their implementation. It helps the change process by supporting the person who synchronizes the analytical task, approves system changes, reviews the implementation of changes, and oversees other tasks such as documenting the controls. Answer: D is incorrect. Configuration auditing is the quality assurance element of configuration management. It is occupied in the process of periodic checks to establish the consistency and completeness of accounting information and to validate that all configuration management policies are being followed. Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation. Answer: A is incorrect. Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item’s attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed.

Explanation: The Phase 3 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Validation. The goal of Phase 3 is to validate that the preceding work has produced an IS that operates in a specified computing environment. The process activities of this phase are as follows: Continue to review and refine the SSAA Perform certification evaluation of the integrated system Develop recommendation to the DAA Certification and accreditation decision Answer: D is incorrect. System development is a Phase 2 activity.

Explanation: A business impact analysis (BIA) is a crisis management and business impact analysis technique that identifies those threats that can impact the business continuity of operations. Such threats can be either natural or man-made. The BIA team should have a clear understanding of the organization, key business processes, and IT resources for assessing the risks associated with continuity. In the BIA team, there should be senior management, IT personnel, and end users to identify all resources that are to be used during normal operations. Answer: B is incorrect. Risk analysis is the science of risks and their probability and evaluation in a business or a process. It is an important factor in security enhancement and prevention in a system. Risk analysis should be performed as part of the risk management process for each project. The outcome of the risk analysis would be the creation or review of the risk register to identify and quantify risk elements to the project and their potential impact. Answer: A is incorrect. The functional analysis process is used for converting system requirements into a comprehensive function standard. Verification is the result of the functional analysis process, in which the fundamentals of a system level functional architecture are defined adequately to allow for synthesis in the design phase. The functional analysis breaks down the higher-level functions into the lower level functions. Answer: D is incorrect. Requirements analysis encompasses the tasks that go into determining the needs or conditions to meet for a new or altered product, taking account of the possibly conflicting requirements of the various stakeholders.

Explanation: Maria is new for this organization and she does not have any idea regarding the present infrastructure. Therefore, black box testing is best suited for her. Blackbox testing is a technique in which the testing team has no knowledge about the infrastructure of the organization. The testers must first determine the location and extent of the systems before commencing their analysis. This testing technique is costly and time consuming. Answer: B is incorrect. White box testing, also known as Clear box or Glass box testing, takes into account the internal mechanism of a system or application. The connotations of “Clear box” and “Glass box” indicate that a tester has full visibility of the internal workings of the system. It uses knowledge of the internal structure of an application. It is applicable at the unit, integration, and system levels of the software testing process. It consists of the following testing methods: Control flow-based testing Create a graph from source code. Describe the flow of control through the control flow graph. Design test cases to cover certain elements of the graph. Data flow-based testing Test connections between variable definitions. Check variation of the control flow graph. Set DEF (n) contains variables that are defined at node n. Set USE (n) are variables that are read. Answer: A is incorrect. Graybox testing is a combination of whitebox testing and blackbox testing. In graybox testing, the test engineer is equipped with the knowledge of system and designs test cases or test data based on system knowledge. The security tester typically performs graybox testing to find vulnerabilities in software and network system. Answer: D is incorrect. Unit testing is a type of testing in which each independent unit of an application is tested separately. During unit testing, a developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. Drivers and stubs are programs. A driver simulates a calling unit, and a stub simulates a called unit.

Explanation: Biometrics is a method of authentication that uses physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities to identify a user. Nowadays, the usage of biometric devices such as hand scanners and retinal scanners is becoming more common in the business environment. It is the most secure method of authentication. Answer: B is incorrect. Username and password is the least secure method of authentication in comparison of smart card and biometrics authentication. Username and password can be intercepted. Answer: D is incorrect. Smart card authentication is not as reliable as biometrics authentication. Answer: C is incorrect. Anonymous authentication does not provide security as a user can log on to the system anonymously and he is not prompted for credentials.

Explanation: A simulation test is a method used to test the disaster recovery plans. It operates just like a structured walk-through test. In the simulation test, the members of a disaster recovery team present with a disaster scenario and then, discuss on appropriate responses. These suggested responses are measured and some of them are taken by the team. The range of the simulation test should be defined carefully for avoiding excessive disruption of normal business activities. Answer: A is incorrect. The structured walk-through test is also known as the table-top exercise. In structured walk-through test, the team members walkthrough the plan to identify and correct weaknesses and how they will respond to the emergency scenarios by stepping in the course of the plan. It is the most effective and competent way to identify the areas of overlap in the plan before conducting more challenging training exercises. Answer: B is incorrect. A full-interruption test includes the operations that shut down at the primary site and are shifted to the recovery site according to the disaster recovery plan. It operates just like a parallel test. The full-interruption test is very expensive and difficult to arrange. Sometimes, it causes a major disruption of operations if the test fails. Answer: C is incorrect. A parallel test includes the next level in the testing procedure, and relocates the employees to an alternate recovery site and implements site activation procedures. These employees present with their disaster recovery responsibilities as they would for an actual disaster. The disaster recovery sites have full responsibilities to conduct the day-to-day organization’s business.

Explanation: This is an example of transference. When the risk is transferred to a third party, usually for a fee, it creates a contractual-relationship for the third party to manage the risk on behalf of the performing organization. Risk response planning is a method of developing options to decrease the amount of threats and make the most of opportunities. The risk response should be aligned with the consequence of the risk and cost-effectiveness. This planning documents the processes for managing risk events. It addresses the owners and their responsibilities, risk identification, results from qualification and quantification processes, budgets and times for responses, and contingency plans. The various risk response planning techniques are as follows: Risk acceptance: It indicates that the project team has decided not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk, or is unable to identify any other suitable response strategy. Risk avoidance: It is a technique for a threat, which creates changes to the project management plan that are meant to either eliminate the risk or to protect the project objectives from this impact. Risk mitigation: It is a list of specific actions being taken to deal with specific risks associated with the threats and seeks to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of risk below an acceptable threshold. Risk transference: It is used to shift the impact of a threat to a third party, together with the ownership of the response.