Explanation: The various types of internal tests performed on builds are as follows: Regression tests: It is also known as the verification testing. These tests are developed to confirm that capabilities in earlier builds continue to work correctly in the subsequent builds. Functional test: These tests emphasizes on verifying that the build meets its functional and data requirements and correctly generates each expected display and report. Performance tests: These tests are used to identify the performance thresholds of each build. Reliability tests: These tests are used to identify the reliability thresholds of each build.

Explanation: Anonymous authentication is an authentication method used for Internet communication. It provides limited access to specific public folders and directory information or public areas of a Web site. It is supported by all clients and is used to access unsecured content in public folders. An administrator must create a user account in IIS to enable the user to connect anonymously. Answer: D is incorrect. Multi-factor authentication involves a combination of multiple methods of authentication. For example, an authentication method that uses smart cards as well as usernames and passwords can be referred to as multi-factor authentication. Answer: C is incorrect. Mutual authentication is a process in which a client process and server are required to prove their identities to each other before performing any application function. The client and server identities can be verified through a trusted third party and use shared secrets as in the case of Kerberos v5. The MS-CHAP v2 and EAP-TLS authentication methods support mutual authentication. Answer: B is incorrect. Biometrics authentication uses physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities to identify a user.

Explanation: A cold site provides an office space, and in some cases basic equipment. However, you will need to restore your data to that equipment in order to use it. This is a much less expensive solution than the hot site. Answer: D is incorrect. A hot site has equipment installed, configured and ready to use. This may make disaster recovery much faster, but will also be more expensive. And a school district can afford to be down for several hours before resuming IT operations, so the less expensive option is more appropriate. Answer: C is incorrect. A warm site is between a hot and cold site. It has some equipment ready and connectivity ready. However, it is still significantly more expensive than a cold site, and not necessary for this scenario. Answer: B is incorrect. Off site is not any type of backup site terminology.

Explanation: ISO 27006 is an information security standard developed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). It is entitled as “Information technology – Security techniques Requirements for bodies providing audit and certification of information security management systems”. The ISO 27006 standard provides guidelines for accreditation of an organization which is concerned with certification and registration related to ISMS. The ISO 27006 standard contains the following elements: Scope Normative references Terms and definitions Principles General requirements Structural requirements Resource requirements Information requirements Process requirements Management system requirements for certification bodies Information security risk communication Information security risk monitoring and review Annex A. Defining the scope of process Annex B. Asset valuation and impact assessment Annex C. Examples of typical threats Annex D. Vulnerabilities and vulnerability assessment methods Annex E. Information security risk assessment (ISRA) approaches Answer: C is incorrect. The ISO 27003 standard provides guidelines for implementing an ISMS (Information Security Management System). Answer: D is incorrect. The ISO 27004 standard provides guidelines on specifications and use of measurement techniques for the assessment of the effectiveness of an implemented information security management system and controls. Answer: B is incorrect. The ISO 27005 standard provides guidelines for information security risk management.

Explanation: BCP is a strategy to minimize the consequence of the instability and to allow for the continuation of business processes. The goal of BCP is to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is formed to avoid interruptions to normal business activity. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan. Answer: B is incorrect. A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and “triggers” for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption. Answer: C is incorrect. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking), and other IT infrastructure. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel, facilities, crisis communication, and reputation protection, and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT-related infrastructure recovery/continuity. Answer: A is incorrect. The Continuity Of Operation Plan (COOP) refers to the preparations and institutions maintained by the United States government, providing survival of federal government operations in the case of catastrophic events. It provides procedures and capabilities to sustain an organization’s essential. COOP is the procedure documented to ensure persistent critical operations throughout any period where normal operations are unattainable.

Explanation: The DAA issues one of the following four accreditation determinations: Approval to Operate (ATO): It is an authorization of a DoD information system to process, store, or transmit information. Interim Approval to Operate (IATO): It is a temporary approval to operate based on an assessment of the implementation status of the assigned IA Controls. Interim Approval to Test (IATT): It is a temporary approval to conduct system testing based on an assessment of the implementation status of the assigned IA Controls. Denial of Approval to Operate (DATO): It is a determination that a DoD information system cannot operate because of an inadequate IA design or failure to implement assigned IA Controls. Answer: E is incorrect. No such type of accreditation determination exists.

Explanation: In a ciphertext only attack, an attacker obtains encrypted messages that have been encrypted using the same encryption algorithm.

Explanation: Perl, .NET, and PHP are examples of the application programming interface (API). API is a set of routines, protocols, and tools that users can use to work with a component, application, or operating system. It consists of one or more DLLs that provide specific functionality. API helps in reducing the development time of applications by reducing application code. Most operating environments, such as MS-Windows, provide an API so that programmers can write applications consistent with the operating environment. Answer: A is incorrect. HTML stands for Hypertext Markup Language. It is a set of markup symbols or codes used to create Web pages and define formatting specifications. The markup tells the Web browser how to display the content of the Web page.

Explanation: Non-repudiation is a term that refers to the ability to ensure that a party to a dispute cannot deny the authenticity of their signature on a document or the sending of a message that they originated. Non-repudiation is the concept of ensuring that a party in a dispute cannot refuse to acknowledge, or refute the validity of a statement or contract. As a service, it provides proof of the integrity and origin of data. Although this concept can be applied to any transmission, including television and radio, by far the most common application is in the verification and trust of signatures. Answer: A is incorrect. Confidentiality is a mechanism that ensures that only the intended and authorized recipients are able to read data. The data is so encrypted that even if an unauthorized user gets access to it, he will not get any meaning out of it. Answer: C is incorrect. Reconnaissance is a term that refers to information gathering behaviors that aim to profile the organization, employees, network, and systems before an attack is performed efficiently. It is the first step in the process of intrusion and involves unauthorized discovery and mapping of systems, services, or vulnerabilities. These discovery and mapping techniques are commonly known as scanning and enumeration. Common tools, commands, and utilities used for scanning and enumeration include ping, telnet, nslookup, rpcinfo, File Explorer, finger, etc. Reconnaissance activities take place before performing a malicious attack. These activities are used to increase the probability of successful operation against the target, and to increase the probability of hiding the attacker’s identity. Answer: B is incorrect. OS fingerprinting is a process in which an external host sends special traffic on the external network interface of a computer to determine the computer’s operating system. It is one of the primary steps taken by hackers in preparing an attack.

Explanation: An Intrusion detection system (IDS) is software and/or hardware designed to detect unwanted attempts at accessing, manipulating, and/or disabling of computer systems, mainly through a network, such as the Internet. These attempts may take the form of attacks, as examples, by crackers, malware and/or disgruntled employees. An IDS cannot directly detect attacks within properly encrypted traffic. An intrusion detection system is used to detect several types of malicious behaviors that can compromise the security and trust of a computer system. This includes network attacks against vulnerable services, data driven attacks on applications, host based attacks such as privilege escalation, unauthorized logins and access to sensitive files, and malware (viruses, trojan horses, and worms). Answer: D is incorrect. Access Control List (ACL) is the most commonly used object in Cisco IOS. It filters packets or network traffic by controlling whether routed packets are forwarded or blocked at the router’s interfaces. According to the criteria specified within the access lists, router determines whether the packets to be forwarded or dropped. Access control list criteria could be the source or destination address of the traffic or other information. The types of Cisco ACLs are Standard IP, Extended IP, IPX, Appletalk, etc. Answer: B is incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a method of securing data. It secures traffic by using encryption and digital signing. It enhances the security of data as if an IPSec packet is captured, its contents cannot be read. IPSec also provides sender verification that ensures the certainty of the datagram’s origin to the receiver. Answer: A is incorrect. Direct-attached storage (DAS) is a digital storage system that is directly attached to a server or workstation, without using a storage network.