Explanation: In such a situation, John will use the SuperScan tool to find the open ports and applications on the We-are-secure network. SuperScan is a TCP/UDP port scanner. It also works as a ping sweeper and hostname resolver. It can ping a given range of IP addresses and resolve the host name of the remote system. The features of SuperScan are as follows: It scans any port range from a built-in list or any given range. It performs ping scans and port scans using any IP range. It modifies the port list and port descriptions using the built in editor. It connects to any discovered open port using user-specified “helper” applications. It has the transmission speed control utility. Answer: C, A, and B are incorrect. RIPE, ARIN, and APNIC are the Regional Internet Registries (RIR) that manage, distribute, and register public IP addresses within their respective regions. These can be used as passive tools by an attacker to determine the network range.

Explanation: NIST has developed a suite of documents for conducting Certification & Accreditation (C&A). These documents are as follows: NIST Special Publication 800-37: This document is a guide for the security certification and accreditation of Federal Information Systems. NIST Special Publication 800-53: This document provides a guideline for security controls for Federal Information Systems. NIST Special Publication 800-53A. This document consists of techniques and procedures for verifying the effectiveness of security controls in Federal Information System. NIST Special Publication 800-59: This document is a guideline for identifying an information system as a National Security System. NIST Special Publication 800-60: This document is a guide for mapping types of information and information systems to security objectives and risk levels.

Explanation: In 2003, NIST developed a new Certification & Accreditation (C&A) guideline known as FIPS 199. FIPS 199 is a standard for security categorization of Federal Information and Information Systems. It defines three levels of potential impact: Low: It causes a limited adverse effect. Medium: It causes a serious adverse effect. High: It causes a severe adverse effect.

Explanation: The tools and practices that are helpful in producing secure software are summarized in the report “Enhancing the Development Life Cycle to Produce Secure Software”. The tools and practices are as follows: Compiler security checking and enforcement Safe software libraries Runtime error checking and safety enforcement Tools to detect memory violations Code obfuscation Answer: A and E are incorrect. These are secure coding principles and practices of defensive coding.

Explanation: The following are the basic characteristics of declarative security: In declarative security, programming is not required. All security constraints are stated in the configuration files. It is a container-managed security. The application server manages the enforcing process of security constraints. It has a runtime environment. The security policies for runtime environment are represented by the deployment descriptor. It can support different environments, such as development, testing, and production. Answer: D is incorrect. It is the characteristic of programmatic security.

Explanation: You will most probably find this information in the Service Level Agreement document. Amongst other information, SLA contains information about the agreed Service Hours and maintenance slots for any particular Service. Service Level Agreement (frequently abbreviated as SLA) is a part of a service contract where the level of service is formally defined. In practice, the term SLA is sometimes used to refer to the contracted delivery time (of the service) or performance. Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a negotiated agreement between two parties where one is the customer and the other is the service provider. This can be a legally binding formal or informal ‘contract’. Contracts between the Service Provider and other third parties are often (incorrectly) called SLAs, as the level of service has been set by the (principal) customer there can be no ‘agreement’ between third parties (these agreements are simply a ‘contract’). Operating Level Agreements or OLA(s) however, may be used by internal groups to support SLA (s). Answer: B is incorrect. Release Policy is a set of rules for deploying releases into the live operational environment, defining different approaches for releases depending on their urgency and impact. Answer: C is incorrect. The Service Level Requirements document contains the requirements for a service from the client viewpoint, defining detailed service level targets, mutual responsibilities, and other requirements specific to a certain group of customers. Answer: D is incorrect. Underpinning Contract (UC) is a contract between an IT service provider and a third party. In another way, it is an agreement between the IT organization and an external provider about the delivery of one or more services. The third party provides services that support the delivery of a service to a customer. The Underpinning Contract defines targets and responsibilities that are required to meet agreed Service Level targets in an SLA.

Explanation: Contingency plan is prepared and documented for emergency response, backup operations, and recovery maintained by an activity as the element of its security program that will ensure the availability of critical resources and facilitates the continuity of operations in an emergency situation. A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and “triggers” for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption. Answer: D is incorrect. A disaster recovery plan should contain data, hardware, and software that can be critical for a business. It should also include the plan for sudden loss such as hard disc crash. The business should use backup and data recovery utilities to limit the loss of data. Answer: A is incorrect. The Continuity Of Operation Plan (COOP) refers to the preparations and institutions maintained by the United States government, providing survival of federal government operations in the case of catastrophic events. It provides procedures and capabilities to sustain an organization’s essential. COOP is the procedure documented to ensure persistent critical operations throughout any period where normal operations are unattainable. Answer: B is incorrect. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan.

Explanation: Programmatic security applies the internal security policies of the software applications when they are deployed. In this type of security, the code of the software application controls the security behavior, and authentication decisions are made based on the business logic, such as the user role or the task performed by the user in a specific security context.

Explanation: Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) is a tool that includes a graphical and command line interface that can perform local or remote scans of Windows systems. It runs on computers running Windows 2000, Windows XP, or Windows Server 2003 operating system. MBSA scans for common security misconfigurations in Windows NT 4.0, Windows 2000, Windows XP, Windows Server 2003, Internet Information Server (IIS) 4.0 and above, SQL Server 7.0 and 2000, and Office 2000 and 2002. It also scans for missing hot fixes in several Microsoft products, such as Windows 2000, Windows XP, SQL Server etc. Answer: B, D, and A are incorrect. These are invalid options.