At which of the following levels of robustness in DRM must the security functions be immune to widely available tools and specialized tools and resistant to professional tools? A. Level 2 B. Level 4 C. Level 1 D. Level 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: At Level 1 of robustness in DRM, the security functions must be immune to widely available tools and specialized tools and resistant to professional tools.
The Software Configuration Management (SCM) process defines the need to trace changes, and the ability to verify that the final delivered software has all of the planned enhancements that are supposed to be included in the release. What are the procedures that must be defined for each software project to ensure that a sound SCM process is implemented? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Configuration status accounting B. Configuration change control C. Configuration identification D. Configuration audits E. Configuration implementation F. Configuration deployment
Correct Answer: ABCD
Explanation:
Explanation: The SCM process defines the need to trace changes, and the ability to verify that the final delivered software has all of the planned enhancements that are supposed to be included in the release. It identifies four procedures that must be defined for each software project to ensure that a sound SCM process is implemented. They are as follows: 1.Configuration identification: Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. 2.Configuration change control: Configuration change control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item’s attributes and to re-baseline them. 3.Configuration status accounting: Configuration status accounting is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each configuration item at any moment of time. 4.Configuration audits: Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation.
In which of the following deployment models of cloud is the cloud infrastructure operated exclusively for an organization? A. Public cloud B. Community cloud C. Private cloud D. Hybrid cloud
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: In private cloud, the cloud infrastructure is operated exclusively for an organization. The private cloud infrastructure is administered by the organization or a third party, and exists on premise and off premise.
You are responsible for network and information security at a large hospital. It is a significant concern that any change to any patient record can be easily traced back to the person who made that change. What is this called? A. Availability B. Confidentiality C. Non repudiation D. Data Protection
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: Non repudiation refers to mechanisms that prevent a party from falsely denying involvement in some data transaction.
Which of the following security controls works as the totality of protection mechanisms within a computer system, including hardware, firmware, and software, the combination of which is responsible for enforcing a security policy? A. Common data security architecture (CDSA) B. Application program interface (API) C. Trusted computing base (TCB) D. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: Trusted computing base (TCB) refers to hardware, software, controls, and processes that cause a computer system or network to be devoid of malicious software or hardware. Maintaining the trusted computing base (TCB) is essential for security policy to be implemented successfully. Answer: D is incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security. IPSec can encrypt virtually everything above the networking layer. It is used for VPN connections that use the L2TP protocol. It secures both data and password. IPSec cannot be used with Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP). Answer: A is incorrect. The Common data security architecture (CDSA) is a set of layered security services and cryptographic framework. It deals with the communications and data security problems in the emerging Internet and intranet application space. It presents an infrastructure for building cross-platform, interoperable, security-enabled applications for client-server environments. Answer: B is incorrect. An application programming interface (API) is an interface implemented by a software program which enables it to interact with other software. It facilitates interaction between different software programs similar to the way the user interface facilitates interaction between humans and computers. An API is implemented by applications, libraries, and operating systems to determine their vocabularies and calling conventions, and is used to access their services. It may include specifications for routines, data structures, object classes, and protocols used to communicate between the consumer and the implementer of the API.
Which of the following is an example of penetration testing? A. Implementing NIDS on a network B. Implementing HIDS on a computer C. Simulating an actual attack on a network D. Configuring firewall to block unauthorized traffic
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: Penetration testing is a method of evaluating the security of a computer system or network by simulating an attack from a malicious source, known as a Black Hat Hacker, or Cracker. The process involves an active analysis of the system for any potential vulnerabilities that may result from poor or improper system configuration, known and/or unknown hardware or software flaws, or operational weaknesses in process or technical countermeasures. This analysis is carried out from the position of a potential attacker, and can involve active exploitation of security vulnerabilities. Any security issues that are found will be presented to the system owner together with an assessment of their impact and often with a proposal for mitigation or a technical solution. The intent of a penetration testing is to determine feasibility of an attack and the amount of business impact of a successful exploit, if discovered. It is a component of a full security audit. Answer: A, B, and D are incorrect. Implementing NIDS and HIDS and configuring firewall to block unauthorized traffic are not examples of penetration testing.
Which of the following types of attacks occurs when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts? A. Denial-of-service attack B. Dictionary attack C. Man-in-the-middle attack D. Password guessing attack
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: When an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts, it is known as man-in-the-middle attack.
Digital rights management (DRM) consists of compliance and robustness rules. Which of the following features does the robustness rule have? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. It specifies the various levels of robustness that are needed for asset security. B. It specifies minimum techniques for asset security. C. It specifies the behaviors of the DRM implementation and applications accessing the implementation. D. It contains assets, such as device key, content key, algorithm, and profiling data.
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation:
Explanation: The DRM (digital rights management) technology includes the following rules: 1.Compliance rule: This rule specifies the behaviors of the DRM implementation, and applications that are accessing the implementation. The compliance rule specifies the following elements: Definition of specific license rights Device requirements Revocation of license path or penalties when the implementation is not robust enough or noncompliant 2.Robustness rule: This rule has the following features: It specifies the various levels of robustness that are needed for asset security. It contains assets, such as device key, content key, algorithm, and profiling data. It specifies minimum techniques for asset security.
Which of the following methods can be helpful to eliminate social engineering threat? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. Password policies B. Data classification C. Data encryption D. Vulnerability assessments
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation:
Explanation: The following methods can be helpful to eliminate social engineering threat: Password policies Vulnerability assessments Data classification Password policy should specify that how the password can be shared. Company should implement periodic penetration and vulnerability assessments. These assessments usually consist of using known hacker tools and common hacker techniques to breach a network security. Social engineering should also be used for an accurate assessment. Since social engineers use the knowledge of others to attain information, it is essential to have a data classification model in place that all employees know and follow. Data classification assigns level of sensitivity of company information. Each classification level specifies that who can view and edit data, and how it can be shared.
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