Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network, or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Which of the following areas can be exploited in a penetration test? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Kernel flaws B. Information system architectures C. Race conditions D. File and directory permissions E. Buffer overflows F. Trojan horses G. Social engineering
Correct Answer: ACDEFG
Explanation:
Explanation: Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network, or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Following are the areas that can be exploited in a penetration test: Kernel flaws: Kernel flaws refer to the exploitation of kernel code flaws in the operating system. Buffer overflows: Buffer overflows refer to the exploitation of a software failure to properly check for the length of input data. This overflow can cause malicious behavior on the system. Race conditions: A race condition is a situation in which an attacker can gain access to a system as a privileged user. File and directory permissions: In this area, an attacker exploits weak permissions restrictions to gain unauthorized access of documents. Trojan horses: These are malicious programs that can exploit an information system by attaching themselves in valid programs and files. Social engineering: In this technique, an attacker uses his social skills and persuasion to acquire valuable information that can be used to conduct an attack against a system.
Which of the following security models characterizes the rights of each subject with respect to every object in the computer system? A. Clark-Wilson model B. Bell-LaPadula model C. Biba model D. Access matrix
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: The access matrix or access control matrix is an abstract, formal security model of protection state in computer systems that characterizes the rights of each subject with respect to every object in the system. It was first introduced by Butler W. Lampson in 1971. According to the access matrix model, the protection state of a computer system can be abstracted as a set of objects ‘O’, that is the set of entities that needs to be protected (e.g. processes, files, memory pages) and a set of subjects ‘S’ that consists of all active entities (e.g. users, processes). Further there exists a set of rights ‘R’ of the form r(s,o), where s S, o O and r(s,o) R. A right thereby specifies the kind of access a subject is allowed to process with regard to an object. Answer: B is incorrect. The Bell-La Padula Model is a state machine model used for enforcing access control in government and military applications. The model is a formal state transition model of computer security policy that describes a set of access control rules which use security labels on objects and clearances for subjects. Security labels range from the most sensitive (e.g.,”Top Secret”), down to the least sensitive (e.g., “Unclassified” or “Public”). The Bell-La Padula model focuses on data confidentiality and controlled access to classified information, in contrast to the Biba Integrity Model which describes rules for the protection of data integrity. Answer: A is incorrect. The Clark-Wilson model provides a foundation for specifying and analyzing an integrity policy for a computing system. The model is primarily concerned with formalizing the notion of information integrity. Information integrity is maintained by preventing corruption of data items in a system due to either error or malicious intent. The model’s enforcement and certification rules define data items and processes that provide the basis for an integrity policy. The core of the model is based on the notion of a transaction. Answer: C is incorrect. The Biba model is a formal state transition system of computer security policy that describes a set of access control rules designed to ensure data integrity. Data and subjects are grouped into ordered levels of integrity. The model is designed so that subjects may not corrupt data in a level ranked higher than the subject, or be corrupted by data from a lower level than the subject.
You are the project manager of QSL project for your organization. You are working with your project team and several key stakeholders to create a diagram that shows how various elements of a system interrelate and the mechanism of causation within the system. What diagramming technique are you using as a part of the risk identification process? A. Cause and effect diagrams B. Influence diagrams C. Predecessor and successor diagramming D. System or process flowcharts
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: In this example you are using a system or process flowchart. These can help identify risks within the process flow, such as bottlenecks or redundancy. Answer: A is incorrect. A cause and effect diagram, also known as an Ishikawa or fishbone diagram, can reveal causal factors to the effect to be solved. Answer: B is incorrect. An influence diagram shows causal influences, time ordering of events and relationships among variables and outcomes. Answer: C is incorrect. Predecessor and successor diagramming is not a valid risk identification term.
Which of the following specifies access privileges to a collection of resources by using the URL mapping? A. Code Access Security B. Security constraint C. Configuration Management D. Access Management
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: Security constraint is a type of declarative security, which specifies the protection of web content. It also specifies access privileges to a collection of resources by using the URL mapping. A deployment descriptor is used to define the security constraint. Security constraint includes the following elements: Web resource collection Authorization constraint User data constraint Answer: A is incorrect. Code Access Security (CAS), in the Microsoft .NET framework, is Microsoft’s solution to prevent untrusted code from performing privileged actions. When the CLR (common language runtime) loads an assembly it will obtain evidence for the assembly and use this to identify the code group that the assembly belongs to. A code group contains a permission set (one or more permissions). Code that performs a privileged action will perform a code access demand, which will cause the CLR to walk up the call stack and examine the permission set granted to the assembly of each method in the call stack. The code groups and permission sets are determined by the administrator of the machine who defines the security policy. Answer: D is incorrect. Access Management is used to grant authorized users the right to use a service, while preventing access to non- authorized users. The Access Management process essentially executes policies defined in IT Security Management. It is sometimes also referred to as Rights Management or Identity Management. It is part of Service Operation and the owner of Access Management is the Access Manager. Access Management is added as a new process to ITIL V3. The sub-processes of Access Management are as follows: Maintain Catalogue of User Roles and Access Profiles Manage User Access Requests Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration Management (CM) is an Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) IT Service Management (ITSM) process. It tracks all of the individual Configuration Items (CI) in an IT system, which may be as simple as a single server, or as complex as the entire IT department. In large organizations a configuration manager may be appointed to oversee and manage the CM process.
Which of the following testing methods tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively cover the affected changes? A. Unit testing B. Integration testing C. Acceptance testing D. Regression testing
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: Regression testing focuses on finding defects after a major code change has occurred. Specifically, it seeks to uncover software regressions, or old bugs that have come back. Such regressions occur whenever software functionality that was previously working correctly stops working as intended. Typically, regressions occur as an unintended consequence of program changes, when the newly developed part of the software collides with the previously existing code. Regression testing tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively cover the affected changes. Answer: A is incorrect. Unit testing is a type of testing in which each independent unit of an application is tested separately. During unit testing, a developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. Drivers and stubs are programs. A driver simulates a calling unit, and a stub simulates a called unit. Answer: C is incorrect. Acceptance testing is performed on the application before its implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets the requirement for which it was made. Answer: B is incorrect. Integration testing is a software testing that seeks to verify the interfaces between components against a software design. Software components may be integrated in an iterative way or all together (“big bang”). Normally the former is considered a better practice since it allows interface issues to be localized more quickly and fixed. Integration testing works to expose defects in the interfaces and interaction between the integrated components (modules). Progressively larger groups of tested software components corresponding to elements of the architectural design are integrated and tested until the software works as a system.
Which of the following provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into an existing application? A. Watermarking B. ESAPI C. Encryption wrapper D. Code obfuscation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: ESAPI (Enterprise Security API) is a group of classes that encapsulate the key security operations, needed by most of the applications. It is a free, open source, Web application security control library. ESAPI provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into an existing application. It offers a solid foundation for new development. Answer: A is incorrect. Watermarking is the process of embedding information into software in a way that is difficult to remove. Answer: C is incorrect. Encryption wrapper dynamically encrypts and decrypts all the software code at runtime. Answer: D is incorrect. Code obfuscation is designed to protect code from decompilation.
Which of the following terms ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data? A. Non-repudiation B. Integrity C. Authentication D. Confidentiality
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: Integrity ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data. Answer: D is incorrect. Confidentiality refers to the protection of data against unauthorized access. Administrators can provide confidentiality by encrypting data. Answer: A is incorrect. Non-repudiation is a mechanism to prove that the sender really sent this message. Answer: C is incorrect. Authentication is the process of verifying the identity of a person or network host.
Continuous Monitoring is the fourth phase of the security certification and accreditation process. What activities are performed in the Continuous Monitoring process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Security accreditation decision B. Security control monitoring and impact analyses of changes to the information system C. Security accreditation documentation D. Configuration management and control E. Status reporting and documentation
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation:
Explanation: Continuous Monitoring is the fourth phase of the security certification and accreditation process. The Continuous Monitoring process consists of the following three main activities: Configuration management and control Security control monitoring and impact analyses of changes to the information system Status reporting and documentation The objective of these tasks is to observe and evaluate the information system security controls during the system life cycle. These tasks determine whether the changes that have occurred will negatively impact the system security. Answer: A and C are incorrect. Security accreditation decision and security accreditation documentation are the two tasks of the security accreditation phase.
Stella works as a system engineer for BlueWell Inc. She wants to identify the performance thresholds of each build. Which of the following tests will help Stella to achieve her task? A. Reliability test B. Performance test C. Regression test D. Functional test
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: The various types of internal tests performed on builds are as follows: Regression tests: It is also known as the verification testing. These tests are developed to confirm that capabilities in earlier builds continue to work correctly in the subsequent builds. Functional test: These tests emphasizes on verifying that the build meets its functional and data requirements and correctly generates each expected display and report. Performance tests: These tests are used to identify the performance thresholds of each build. Reliability tests: These tests are used to identify the reliability thresholds of each build.
Which of the following authentication methods is used to access public areas of a Web site? A. Anonymous authentication B. Biometrics authentication C. Mutual authentication D. Multi-factor authentication
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: Anonymous authentication is an authentication method used for Internet communication. It provides limited access to specific public folders and directory information or public areas of a Web site. It is supported by all clients and is used to access unsecured content in public folders. An administrator must create a user account in IIS to enable the user to connect anonymously. Answer: D is incorrect. Multi-factor authentication involves a combination of multiple methods of authentication. For example, an authentication method that uses smart cards as well as usernames and passwords can be referred to as multi-factor authentication. Answer: C is incorrect. Mutual authentication is a process in which a client process and server are required to prove their identities to each other before performing any application function. The client and server identities can be verified through a trusted third party and use shared secrets as in the case of Kerberos v5. The MS-CHAP v2 and EAP-TLS authentication methods support mutual authentication. Answer: B is incorrect. Biometrics authentication uses physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities to identify a user.
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