Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question079

Della works as a security engineer for BlueWell Inc. She wants to establish configuration management and control procedures that will document proposed or actual changes to the information system. Which of the following phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A methodology will define the above task?

A.
Initiation
B. Security Certification
C. Continuous Monitoring
D. Security Accreditation

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Explanation: The various phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A are as follows: Phase 1: Initiation- This phase includes preparation, notification and resource identification. It performs the security plan analysis, update, and acceptance. Phase 2: Security Certification- The Security certification phase evaluates the controls and documentation. Phase 3: Security Accreditation- The security accreditation phase examines the residual risk for acceptability, and prepares the final security accreditation package. Phase 4: Continuous Monitoring-This phase monitors the configuration management and control, ongoing security control verification, and status reporting and documentation.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question078

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between the role of a data owner and the role of a data custodian?

A.
The custodian makes the initial information classification assignments, and the operations manager implements the scheme.
B. The data owner implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the custodian.
C. The custodian implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the operations manager.
D. The data custodian implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the data owner.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Explanation: The data owner is responsible for ensuring that the appropriate security controls are in place, for assigning the initial classification to the data to be protected, for approving access requests from other parts of the organization, and for periodically reviewing the data classifications and access rights. Data owners are primarily responsible for determining the data’s sensitivity or classification levels, whereas the data custodian has the responsibility for backup, retention, and recovery of data. The data owner delegates these responsibilities to the custodian. Answer: B, A, and C are incorrect. These are not the valid answers.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question077

Which of the following testing methods verifies the interfaces between components against a software design?

A.
Regression testing
B. Integration testing
C. Black-box testing
D. Unit testing

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation: Integration testing is a software testing that seeks to verify the interfaces between components against a software design. Software components may be integrated in an iterative way or all together (“big bang”). Normally the former is considered a better practice since it allows interface issues to be localized more quickly and fixed. Integration testing works to expose defects in the interfaces and interaction between the integrated components (modules). Progressively larger groups of tested software components corresponding to elements of the architectural design are integrated and tested until the software works as a system. Answer: A is incorrect. Regression testing focuses on finding defects after a major code change has occurred. Specifically, it seeks to uncover software regressions, or old bugs that have come back. Such regressions occur whenever software functionality that was previously working correctly stops working as intended. Typically, regressions occur as an unintended consequence of program changes, when the newly developed part of the software collides with the previously existing code. Answer: D is incorrect. Unit testing refers to tests that verify the functionality of a specific section of code, usually at the function level. In an object-oriented environment, this is usually at the class level, and the minimal unit tests include the constructors and destructors. These types of tests are usually written by developers as they work on code (white-box style), to ensure that the specific function is working as expected. One function might have multiple tests, to catch corner cases or other branches in the code. Unit testing alone cannot verify the functionality of a piece of software, but rather is used to assure that the building blocks the software uses work independently of each other. Answer: C is incorrect. The black-box testing uses external descriptions of the software, including specifications, requirements, and design to derive test cases. These tests can be functional or non-functional, though usually functional. The test designer selects valid and invalid inputs and determines the correct output. There is no knowledge of the test object’s internal structure. This method of test design is applicable to all levels of software testing: unit, integration, functional testing, system and acceptance. The higher the level, and hence the bigger and more complex the box, the more one is forced to use black box testing to simplify. While this method can uncover unimplemented parts of the specification, one cannot be sure that all existent paths are tested.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question076

Which of the following access control models are used in the commercial sector? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A.
Biba model
B. Clark-Biba model
C. Clark-Wilson model
D. Bell-LaPadula model

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:

Explanation: The Biba and Clark-Wilson access control models are used in the commercial sector. The Biba model is a formal state transition system of computer security policy that describes a set of access control rules designed to ensure data integrity. Data and subjects are grouped into ordered levels of integrity. The model is designed so that subjects may not corrupt data in a level ranked higher than the subject, or be corrupted by data from a lower level than the subject. The Clark-Wilson security model provides a foundation for specifying and analyzing an integrity policy for a computing system. Answer: D is incorrect. The Bell-LaPadula access control model is mainly used in military systems. Answer: B is incorrect. There is no such access control model as Clark-Biba.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question075

Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management Manual?

A.
DoD 8910.1
B. DoD 7950.1-M
C. DoDD 8000.1
D. DoD 5200.22-M
E. DoD 5200.1-R

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation: The various DoD directives are as follows: DoD 5200.1-R: This DoD directive refers to the ‘Information Security Program Regulation’. DoD 5200.22-M: This DoD directive refers the ‘National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual’. DoD 7950.1-M: This DoD directive refers to the ‘Defense Automation Resources Management Manual’. DoDD 8000.1: This DoD directive refers to the ‘Defense Information Management (IM) Program’. DoD 8910.1: This DoD directive refers to the ‘Management and Control of Information Requirements’.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question074

The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) provides a common modeling notation to address alignment between business and IT organizations. Which of the following principles does the SOMF concentrate on? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A.
Architectural components abstraction
B. SOA value proposition
C. Business traceability
D. Disaster recovery planning
E. Software assets reuse

Correct Answer: ABCE

Explanation:

Explanation: The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) concentrates on the following principles: Business traceability Architectural best-practices traceability Technological traceability SOA value proposition Software assets reuse SOA integration strategies Technological abstraction and generalization Architectural components abstraction Answer: D is incorrect. The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) does not concentrate on it.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question073

Which of the following is an example of over-the-air (OTA) provisioning in digital rights management?

A.
Use of shared secrets to initiate or rebuild trust.
B. Use of software to meet the deployment goals.
C. Use of concealment to avoid tampering attacks.
D. Use of device properties for unique identification.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation: Over- the- air provisioning is a mechanism to deploy MIDlet suites over a network. It is a method of distributing MIDlet suites. MIDlet suite providers install their MIDlet suites on Web servers and provide a hypertext link for downloading. A user can use this link to download the MIDlet suite either through the Internet microbrowser or through WAP on his device. Over-the-air provisioning is required for end-to-end encryption or other security purposes in order to deliver copyrighted software to a mobile device. For example, use of shared secrets to initiate or rebuild trust. Answer: D and C are incorrect. The use of device properties for unique identification and the use of concealment to avoid tampering attacks are the security challenges in digital rights management (DRM). Answer: B is incorrect. The use of software and hardware to meet the deployment goals is a distracter.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question072

You work as a security engineer for BlueWell Inc. Which of the following documents will you use as a guide for the security certification and accreditation of Federal Information Systems?

A.
NIST Special Publication 800-60
B. NIST Special Publication 800-53
C. NIST Special Publication 800-37
D. NIST Special Publication 800-59

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Explanation: NIST has developed a suite of documents for conducting Certification & Accreditation (C&A). These documents are as follows: NIST Special Publication 800-37: This document is a guide for the security certification and accreditation of Federal Information Systems. NIST Special Publication 800-53: This document provides a guideline for security controls for Federal Information Systems. NIST Special Publication 800-53A. This document consists of techniques and procedures for verifying the effectiveness of security controls in Federal Information System. NIST Special Publication 800-59: This document is a guideline for identifying an information system as a National Security System. NIST Special Publication 800-60: This document is a guide for mapping types of information and information systems to security objectives and risk levels.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question071

The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in Phase 3. What are the process activities of this phase? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A.
Security operations
B. Maintenance of the SSAA
C. Compliance validation
D. Change management
E. System operations
F. Continue to review and refine the SSAA

Correct Answer: ABCDE

Explanation:

Explanation: The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in the Phase 3. The goal of this phase is to continue to operate and manage the system and to ensure that it will maintain an acceptable level of residual risk. The process activities of this phase are as follows: System operations Security operations Maintenance of the SSAA Change management Compliance validation Answer: F is incorrect. It is a Phase 3 activity.

Secure Software Lifecycle Professional – CSSLP – Question070

A security policy is an overall general statement produced by senior management that dictates what role security plays within the organization. Which of the following are required to be addressed in a well designed policy? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A.
What is being secured?
B. Where is the vulnerability, threat, or risk?
C. Who is expected to exploit the vulnerability?
D. Who is expected to comply with the policy?

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation:

Explanation: A security policy is an overall general statement produced by senior management (or a selected policy board or committee) that dictates what role security plays within the organization. A well designed policy addresses the following: What is being secured? – Typically an asset. Who is expected to comply with the policy? – Typically employees. Where is the vulnerability, threat, or risk? – Typically an issue of integrity or responsibility.