You work as a system engineer for BlueWell Inc. You want to verify that the build meets its data requirements, and correctly generates each expected display and report. Which of the following tests will help you to perform the above task? A. Performance test B. Functional test C. Reliability test D. Regression test
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: The various types of internal tests performed on builds are as follows: Regression tests: It is also known as the verification testing. These tests are developed to confirm that capabilities in earlier builds continue to work correctly in the subsequent builds. Functional test: These tests emphasizes on verifying that the build meets its functional and data requirements and correctly generates each expected display and report. Performance tests: These tests are used to identify the performance thresholds of each build. Reliability tests: These tests are used to identify the reliability thresholds of each build.
The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief Information Officer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials B. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then working within a budget to implement the plan
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation:
Explanation: A Chief Information Officer (CIO) plays the role of a leader. The responsibilities of a Chief Information Officer are as follows: Establishes effective continuous monitoring program for the organization. Facilitates continuous monitoring process for the organizations. Preserves high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization. Confirms that information systems are covered by a permitted security plan and monitored throughout the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC). Manages and delegates decisions to employees in large enterprises. Proposes the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then works within a budget to implement the plan. Answer: A is incorrect. A Risk Executive facilitates the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials.
Which of the following recovery plans includes specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular security problem, emergency, or state of affairs? A. Disaster recovery plan B. Business continuity plan C. Continuity of Operations Plan D. Contingency plan
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and triggers for initiating planned actions. Answer: A is incorrect. Disaster recovery is the process, policies, and procedures related to preparing for recovery or continuation of technology infrastructure critical to an organization after a natural or human-induced disaster. Answer: B is incorrect. It deals with the plans and procedures that identify and prioritize the critical business functions that must be preserved. Answer: C is incorrect. It includes the plans and procedures documented that ensure the continuity of critical operations during any period where normal operations are impossible.
Which of the following security architectures defines how to integrate widely disparate applications for a world that is Web-based and uses multiple implementation platforms? A. Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture B. Enterprise architecture C. Service-oriented architecture D. Service-oriented modeling and architecture
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: In computing, a service-oriented architecture (SOA) is a flexible set of design principles used during the phases of systems development and integration. A deployed SOA-based architecture will provide a loosely-integrated suite of services that can be used within multiple business domains. SOA also generally provides a way for consumers of services, such as web-based applications, to be aware of available SOA-based services. For example, several disparate departments within a company may develop and deploy SOA services in different implementation languages; their respective clients will benefit from a well understood, well defined interface to access them. XML is commonly used for interfacing with SOA services, though this is not required. SOA defines how to integrate widely disparate applications for a world that is Web-based and uses multiple implementation platforms. Rather than defining an API, SOA defines the interface in terms of protocols and functionality. An endpoint is the entry point for such an SOA implementation.
(Layer interaction in Service-oriented architecture) Answer: A is incorrect. SABSA (Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture) is a framework and methodology for Enterprise Security Architecture and Service Management. SABSA is a model and a methodology for developing risk-driven enterprise information security architectures and for delivering security infrastructure solutions that support critical business initiatives. The primary characteristic of the SABSA model is that everything must be derived from an analysis of the business requirements for security, especially those in which security has an enabling function through which new business opportunities can be developed and exploited. Answer: D is incorrect. The service-oriented modeling and architecture (SOMA) includes an analysis and design method that extends traditional object-oriented and component-based analysis and design methods to include concerns relevant to and supporting SOA. Answer: B is incorrect. Enterprise architecture describes the terminology, the composition of subsystems, and their relationships with the external environment, and the guiding principles for the design and evolution of an enterprise.
Which of the following specifies the behaviors of the DRM implementation and any applications that are accessing the implementation? A. OS fingerprinting B. OTA provisioning C. Access control D. Compliance rule
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: The Compliance rule specifies the behaviors of the DRM implementation and any applications that are accessing the implementation. The compliance rule specifies the following elements: Definition of specific license rights Device requirements Revocation of license path or penalties when the implementation is not robust enough or noncompliant Answer: B is incorrect. Over- the- air provisioning is a mechanism to deploy MIDlet suites over a network. It is a method of distributing MIDlet suites. MIDlet suite providers install their MIDlet suites on Web servers and provide a hypertext link for downloading. A user can use this link to download the MIDlet suite either through the Internet microbrowser or through WAP on his device. Answer: C is incorrect. An access control is a system, which enables an authority to control access to areas and resources in a given physical facility, or computer-based information system. Access control system, within the field of physical security, is generally seen as the second layer in the security of a physical structure. It refers to all mechanisms that control visibility of screens, views, and data within Siebel Business Applications. Answer: A is incorrect. OS fingerprinting is a process in which an external host sends special traffic on the external network interface of a computer to determine the computer’s operating system. It is one of the primary steps taken by hackers in preparing an attack.
Which of the following are the important areas addressed by a software system's security policy? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Identification and authentication B. Punctuality C. Data protection D. Accountability E. Scalability F. Access control
Correct Answer: ACDF
Explanation:
Explanation: The security policy of a software system addresses the following important areas: Access control Data protection Confidentiality Integrity Identification and authentication Communication security Accountability Answer: E and B are incorrect. Scalability and punctuality are not addressed by a software system’s security policy.
Which of the following statements about the integrity concept of information security management are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. It ensures that unauthorized modifications are not made to data by authorized personnel or processes. B. It determines the actions and behaviors of a single individual within a system C. It ensures that internal information is consistent among all subentities and also consistent with the real-world, external situation. D. It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation:
Explanation: The following statements about the integrity concept of information security management are true: It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes. It ensures that unauthorized modifications are not made to data by authorized personnel or processes. It ensures that internal information is consistent among all subentities and also consistent with the real-world, external situation. Answer: B is incorrect. Accountability determines the actions and behaviors of an individual within a system, and identifies that particular individual. Audit trails and logs support accountability.
The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the minimum standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that handle U.S. national security information. What are the different types of NIACAP accreditation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Site accreditation B. Type accreditation C. Secure accreditation D. System accreditation
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation:
Explanation: NIACAP accreditation is of three types depending on what is being certified. They are as follows: 1.Site accreditation: This type of accreditation evaluates the applications and systems at a specific, self contained location. 2.Type accreditation: This type of accreditation evaluates an application or system that is distributed to a number of different locations. 3.System accreditation: This accreditation evaluates a major application or general support system. Answer: C is incorrect. No such type of NIACAP accreditation exists.
In digital rights management, the level of robustness depends on the various types of tools and attacks to which they must be resistant or immune. Which of the following types of tools are expensive, require skill, and are not easily available? A. Hand tools B. Widely available tools C. Specialized tools D. Professional tools
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: The tools used in DRM to define the level of robustness are as follows: 1.Widely available tools: These tools are easy to use and are available to everyone. For example, screw-drivers and file editors. 2.Specialized tools: These tools require skill and are available at reasonable prices. For example, debuggers, decompilers, and memory scanners. 3.Professional tools: These tools are expensive, require skill, and are not easily available. For example, logic analyzers, circuit emulators, and chip disassembly systems.
Which of the following elements sets up a requirement to receive the constrained requests over a protected layer connection, such as TLS (Transport Layer Security)? A. User data constraint B. Authorization constraint C. Web resource collection D. Accounting constraint
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: User data constraint is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification 2.4. It sets up a requirement to receive the constrained requests over a protected layer connection, such as TLS (Transport Layer Security). The user data constraint offers guarantee (NONE, INTEGRAL, and CONFEDENTIAL) for the transportation of data between client and server. If a request does not have user data constraint, the container accepts the request after it is received on a connection. Answer: C is incorrect. Web resource collection is a set of URL patterns and HTTP operations that define all resources required to be protected. It is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification v2.4. The Web resource collection includes the following elements: URL patterns HTTP methods Answer: B is incorrect. Authorization constraint is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification 2.4. It sets up a requirement for authentication and names the authorization roles that can access the URL patterns and HTTP methods as defined by the security constraint. In the absence of a security constraint, the container accepts the request without requiring any user authentication. If no authorization role is specified in the authorization constraint, the container cannot access constrained requests. The wildcard character “*” specifies all authorization role names that are defined in the deployment descriptor. Answer: D is incorrect. It is not a security constraint element.
Please disable your adblocker or whitelist this site!