Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0504

Within the realm of IT security, which of the following combinations best defines risk?

A.
Threat coupled with a breach
B. Threat coupled with a vulnerability
C. Vulnerability coupled with an attack
D. Threat coupled with a breach of security

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The Answer: Threat coupled with a vulnerability. Threats are circumstances or actions with the ability to harm a system. They can destroy or modify data or result an a DoS. Threats by themselves are not acted upon unless there is a vulnerability that can be taken advantage of. Risk enters the equation when a vulnerability (Flaw or weakness) exists in policies, procedures, personnel management, hardware, software or facilities and can be exploited by a threat agent. Vulnerabilities do not cause harm, but they leave the system open to harm. The combination of a threat with a vulnerability increases the risk to the system of an intrusion.
The following answers are incorrect:
Threat coupled with a breach. A threat is the potential that a particular threat-source will take advantage of a vulnerability. Breaches get around security. It does not matter if a breach is discovered or not, it has still occured and is not a risk of something occuring. A breach would quite often be termed as an incident or intrusion.
Vulnerability coupled with an attack. Vulnerabilities are weaknesses (flaws) in policies, procedures, personnel management, hardware, software or factilities that may result in a harmful intrusion to an IT system. An attack takes advantage of the flaw or vulnerability. Attacks are explicit attempts to violate security, and are more than risk as they are active.
Threat coupled with a breach of security. This is a detractor. Although a threat agent may take advantage of (Breach) vulnerabilities or flaws in systems security. A threat coupled with a breach of security is more than a risk as this is active.
The following reference(s) may be used to research the Qs in this question:
ISC2 OIG, 2007 p. 66-67 Shon Harris AIO v3 p. 71-72

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0503

Devices that supply power when the commercial utility power system fails are called which of the following?

A.
power conditioners
B. uninterruptible power supplies
C. power filters
D. power dividers

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

From Shon Harris AIO Fifth Edition:
Protecting power can be done in three ways: through UPSs, power line conditioners, and backup sources.
UPSs use battery packs that range in size and capacity. A UPS can be online or standby.
Online UPS systems use AC line voltage to charge a bank of batteries. When in use, the UPS has an inverter that changes the DC output from the batteries into the required AC form and that regulates the voltage as it powers computer devices.
Online UPS systems have the normal primary power passing through them day in and day out. They constantly provide power from their own inverters, even when the electric power is in proper use. Since the environment’s electricity passes through this type of UPS all the time, the UPS device is able to quickly detect when a power failure takes place. An online UPS can provide the necessary electricity and picks up the load after a power failure much more quickly than a standby UPS.
Standby UPS devices stay inactive until a power line fails. The system has sensors that detect a power failure, and the load is switched to the battery pack. The switch to the battery pack is what causes the small delay in electricity being provided. So an online UPS picks up the load much more quickly than a standby UPS, but costs more of course.

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0502

Which of the following cannot be undertaken in conjunction or while computer incident handling is ongoing?

A.
System development activity
B. Help-desk function
C. System Imaging
D. Risk management process

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

If Incident Handling is underway an incident has potentially been identified. At that point all use of the system should stop because the system can no longer be trusted and any changes could contaminate the evidence. This would include all System Development Activity.
Every organization should have plans and procedures in place that deals with Incident Handling.
Employees should be instructed what steps are to be taken as soon as an incident occurs and how to report it. It is important that all parties involved are aware of these steps to protect not only any possible evidence but also to prevent any additional harm.
It is quite possible that the fraudster has planted malicous code that could cause destruction or even a Trojan Horse with a back door into the system. As soon as an incident has been identified the system can no longer be trusted and all use of the system should cease.
Shon Harris in her latest book mentions: Although we commonly use the terms “event” and “incident” interchangeably, there are subtle differences between the two. An event is a negative occurrence that can be observed, verified, and documented, whereas an incident is a series of events that negatively affects the company and/ or impacts its security posture. This is why we call reacting to these issues “incident response” (or “incident handling”), because something is negatively affecting the company and causing a security breach.
Many types of incidents (virus, insider attack, terrorist attacks, and so on) exist, and sometimes it is just human error. Indeed, many incident response individuals have received a frantic call in the middle of the night because a system is acting “weird.” The reasons could be that a deployed patch broke something, someone misconfigured a device, or the administrator just learned a new scripting language and rolled out some code that caused mayhem and confusion.
When a company endures a computer crime, it should leave the environment and evidence unaltered and contact whomever has been delegated to investigate these types of situations. Someone who is unfamiliar with the proper process of collecting data and evidence from a crime scene could instead destroy that evidence, and thus all hope of prosecuting individuals, and achieving a conviction would be lost.
Companies should have procedures for many issues in computer security such as enforcement procedures, disaster recovery and continuity procedures, and backup procedures. It is also necessary to have a procedure for dealing with computer incidents because they have become an increasingly important issue of today’s information security departments. This is a direct result of attacks against networks and information systems increasing annually. Even though we don’t have specific numbers due to a lack of universal reporting and reporting in general, it is clear that the volume of attacks is increasing.
Just think about all the spam, phishing scams, malware, distributed denial-of-service, and other attacks you see on your own network and hear about in the news. Unfortunately, many companies are at a loss as to who to call or what to do right after they have been the victim of a cybercrime. Therefore, all companies should have an incident response policy that indicates who has the authority to initiate an incident response, with supporting procedures set up before an incident takes place.
This policy should be managed by the legal department and security department. They need to work together to make sure the technical security issues are covered and the legal issues that surround criminal activities are properly dealt with. The incident response policy should be clear and concise. For example, it should indicate if systems can be taken offline to try to save evidence or if systems have to continue functioning at the risk of destroying evidence. Each system and functionality should have a priority assigned to it. For instance, if the file server is infected, it should be removed from the network, but not shut down. However, if the mail server is infected, it should not be removed from the network or shut down because of the priority the company attributes to the mail server over the file server. Tradeoffs and decisions will have to be made, but it is better to think through these issues before the situation occurs, because better logic is usually possible before a crisis, when there’s less emotion and chaos.
The Australian Computer Emergency Response Team’s General Guidelines for Computer Forensics:
Keep the handling and corruption of original data to a minimum. Document all actions and explain changes. Follow the Five Rules for Evidence (Admissible, Authentic, Complete, Accurate, Convincing).
• Bring in more experienced help when handling and/ or analyzing the evidence is beyond your knowledge, skills, or abilities. Adhere to your organization’s security policy and obtain written permission to conduct a forensics investigation. Capture as accurate an image of the system( s) as possible while working quickly. Be ready to testify in a court of law. Make certain your actions are repeatable.
Prioritize your actions, beginning with volatile and proceeding to persistent evidence. Do not run any programs on the system( s) that are potential evidence. Act ethically and in good faith while conducting a forensics investigation, and do not attempt to do any harm.
The following answers are incorrect:
help-desk function. Is incorrect because during an incident, employees need to be able to communicate with a central source. It is most likely that would be the help-desk. Also the help-desk would need to be able to communicate with the employees to keep them informed.
system imaging. Is incorrect because once an incident has occured you should perform a capture of evidence starting with the most volatile data and imaging would be doen using bit for bit copy of storage medias to protect the evidence.
risk management process. Is incorrect because incident handling is part of risk management, and should continue.
Reference(s) used for this question: Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (Kindle Locations 21468-21476). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition. and Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (Kindle Locations 21096-21121). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition. and NIST Computer Security incident handling http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/nistpubs/800-12/800-12-html/chapt…

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0501

Once evidence is seized, a law enforcement officer should emphasize which of the following?

A.
Chain of command
B. Chain of custody
C. Chain of control
D. Chain of communications

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

All people that handle the evidence from the time the crime was committed through the final disposition must be identified. This is to ensure that the evidence can be used and has not been tampered with. The following answers are incorrect:
chain of command. Is incorrect because chain of command is the order of authority and does not apply to evidence. chain of control. Is incorrect because it is a distractor. chain of communications. Is incorrect because it is a distractor.

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0500

The typical computer fraudsters are usually persons with which of the following characteristics?

A.
They have had previous contact with law enforcement
B. They conspire with others
C. They hold a position of trust
D. They deviate from the accepted norms of society

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

These people, as employees, are trusted to perform their duties honestly and not take advantage of the trust placed in them.
The following answers are incorrect:
They have had previous contact with law enforcement. Is incorrect because most often it is a person that holds a position of trust and this answer implies they have a criminal background. This type of individual is typically not in a position of trust within an organization.
They conspire with others. Is incorrect because they typically work alone, often as a form of retribution over a percieved injustice done to them.
They deviate from the accepted norms of society. Is incorrect because while the nature of fraudsters deviate from the norm, the fraudsters often hold a position of trust within the organization.

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0499

To be admissible in court, computer evidence must be which of the following?

A.
Relevant
B. Decrypted
C. Edited
D. Incriminating

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Before any evidence can be admissible in court, the evidence has to be relevant, material to the issue, and it must be presented in compliance with the rules of evidence. This holds true for computer evidence as well.
While there are no absolute means to ensure that evidence will be allowed and helpful in a court of law, information security professionals should understand the basic rules of evidence. Evidence should be relevant, authentic, accurate, complete, and convincing. Evidence gathering should emphasize these criteria.
As stated in CISSP for Dummies:
Because computer-generated evidence can sometimes be easily manipulated, altered , or tampered with, and because it’s not easily and commonly understood, this type of evidence is usually considered suspect in a court of law. In order to be admissible, evidence must be
Relevant: It must tend to prove or disprove facts that are relevant and material to the case.
Reliable: It must be reasonably proven that what is presented as evidence is what was originally collected and that the evidence itself is reliable. This is accomplished, in part, through proper evidence handling and the chain of custody. (We discuss this in the upcoming section
“Chain of custody and the evidence life cycle.”)
Legally permissible: It must be obtained through legal means. Evidence that’s not legally permissible may include evidence obtained through the following means:
Illegal search and seizure: Law enforcement personnel must obtain a prior court order; however, non-law enforcement personnel, such as a supervisor or system administrator, may be able to conduct an authorized search under some circumstances.
Illegal wiretaps or phone taps: Anyone conducting wiretaps or phone taps must obtain a prior court order.
Entrapment or enticement: Entrapment encourages someone to commit a crime that the individual may have had no intention of committing. Conversely, enticement lures someone toward certain evidence (a honey pot, if you will) after that individual has already committed a crime. Enticement is not necessarily illegal but does raise certain ethical arguments and may not be admissible in court.
Coercion: Coerced testimony or confessions are not legally permissible.
Unauthorized or improper monitoring: Active monitoring must be properly authorized and conducted in a standard manner; users must be notified that they may be subject to monitoring.
The following answers are incorrect:
decrypted. Is incorrect because evidence has to be relevant, material to the issue, and it must be presented in compliance with the rules of evidence.
edited. Is incorrect because evidence has to be relevant, material to the issue, and it must be presented in compliance with the rules of evidence. Edited evidence violates the rules of evidence.
incriminating. Is incorrect because evidence has to be relevant, material to the issue, and it must be presented in compliance with the rules of evidence.
Reference(s) used for this question:
CISSP STudy Guide (Conrad, Misenar, Feldman) Elsevier. 2012. Page 423
and Mc Graw Hill, Shon Harris CISSP All In One (AIO), 6th Edition , Pages 1051-1056 and CISSP for Dummies , Peter Gregory

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0498

In addition to the Legal Department, with what company function must the collection of physical evidence be coordinated if an employee is suspected?

A.
Human Resources
B. Industrial Security
C. Public Relations
D. External Audit Group

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

If an employee is suspected of causing an incident, the human resources department may be involved—for example, in assisting with disciplinary proceedings.
Legal Department. The legal experts should review incident response plans, policies, and procedures to ensure their compliance with law and Federal guidance, including the right to privacy. In addition, the guidance of the general counsel or legal department should be sought if there is reason to believe that an incident may have legal ramifications, including evidence collection, prosecution of a suspect, or a lawsuit, or if there may be a need for a memorandum of understanding (MOU) or other binding agreements involving liability limitations for information sharing.
Public Affairs, Public Relations, and Media Relations. Depending on the nature and impact of an incident, a need may exist to inform the media and, by extension, the public.
The Incident response team members could include:
Management
Information Security
Legal / Human Resources
Public Relations
Communications
Physical Security
Network Security
Network and System Administrators
Network and System Security Administrators
Internal Audit
Events versus Incidents An event is any observable occurrence in a system or network. Events include a user connecting to a file share, a server receiving a request for a web page, a user sending email, and a firewall blocking a connection attempt. Adverse events are events with a negative consequence, such as system crashes, packet floods, unauthorized use of system privileges, unauthorized access to sensitive data, and execution of malware that destroys data. This guide addresses only adverse events that are computer security-related, not those caused by natural disasters, power failures, etc.
A computer security incident is a violation or imminent threat of violation of computer security policies, acceptable use policies, or standard security practices.
Examples of incidents are: An attacker commands a botnet to send high volumes of connection requests to a web server, causing it to crash.
Users are tricked into opening a “quarterly report” sent via email that is actually malware; running the tool has infected their computers and established connections with an external host.
An attacker obtains sensitive data and threatens that the details will be released publicly if the organization does not pay a designated sum of money.
A user provides or exposes sensitive information to others through peer-to-peer file sharing services.
The following answers are incorrect:
Industrial Security. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer, the human resource department must be involved with the collection of physical evidence if an employee is suspected.
public relations. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. It would be an important element to minimize public image damage but not the best choice for this question.
External Audit Group. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer, the human resource department must be involved with the collection of physical evidence if an employee is suspected.
Reference(s) used for this question: NIST Special Publication 800-61

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0497

Under United States law, an investigator's notebook may be used in court in which of the following scenarios?

A.
When the investigator is unwilling to testify.
B. When other forms of physical evidence are not available.
C. To refresh the investigators memory while testifying.
D. If the defense has no objections.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

An investigator’s notebook cannot be used as evidence is court. It can only be used by the investigator to refresh his memory during a proceeding, but cannot be submitted as evidence in any form.
The following answers are incorrect:
When the investigator is unwilling to testify. Is incorrect because the notebook cannot be submitted as evidence in any form.
When other forms of physical evidence are not available. Is incorrect because the notebook cannot be submitted as evidence in any form.
If the defense has no objections. Is incorrect because the notebook cannot be submitted as evidence in any form.

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0496

Which of the following is biggest factor that makes Computer Crimes possible?

A.
The fraudster obtaining advanced training & special knowledge.
B. Victim carelessness.
C. Collusion with others in information processing.
D. System design flaws.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The biggest factor that makes Computer Crimes possible is Victim Carelessness. Awareness and education can reduce the chance of someone becomming a victim.
The types and frequency of Computer Crimes are increasing at a rapid rate. Computer Crime was once mainly the result of insiders or disgruntled employees. Now just about everybody has access to the internet, professional criminals are taking advantage of this.
Specialized skills are no longer needed and a search on the internet can provide a fraudster with a plethora of tools that can be used to perpetuate fraud.
All too often carelessness leads to someone being a victim. People often use simple passwords or write them down in plain sight where they can be found by fraudsters. People throwing away papers loaded with account numbers, social security numbers, or other types of non-public personal information. There are phishing e-mail attempts where the fraudster tries to redirect a potential victim to a bogus site that resembles a legitimate site in an attempt to get the users’ login ID and password, or other credentials. There is also social engineering. Awareness and training can help reduce the chance of someone becoming a victim.
The following answers are incorrect:
The fraudster obtaining advanced training and special knowledge. Is incorrect because training and special knowledge is not required. There are many tools widely available to fraudsters.
Collusion with others in information processing. Is incorrect because as more and more people use computers in their daily lives, it is no longer necessary to have someone on the inside be a party to fraud attempts.
System design flaws. Is incorrect because while System design flaws are sometimes a factor in Computer Crimes more often then not it is victim carelessness that leads to Computer Crimes.
References: OIG CBK Legal, Regulations, Compliance and Investigations (pages 695 -697)

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0495

A deviation from an organization-wide security policy requires which of the following?

A.
Risk Acceptance
B. Risk Assignment
C. Risk Reduction
D. Risk Containment

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A deviation from an organization-wide security policy requires you to manage the risk. If you deviate from the security policy then you are required to accept the risks that might occur.
In some cases, it may be prudent for an organization to simply accept the risk that is presented in certain scenarios. Risk acceptance is the practice of accepting certain risk(s), typically based on a business decision that may also weigh the cost versus the benefit of dealing with the risk in another way.
The OIG defines Risk Management as: This term characterizes the overall process.
The first phase of risk assessment includes identifying risks, risk-reducing measures, and the budgetary impact of implementing decisions related to the acceptance, avoidance, or transfer of risk.
The second phase of risk management includes the process of assigning priority to, budgeting, implementing, and maintaining appropriate risk-reducing measures.
Risk management is a continuous process of ever-increasing complexity. It is how we evaluate the impact of exposures and respond to them. Risk management minimizes loss to information assets due to undesirable events through identification, measurement, and control. It encompasses the overall security review, risk analysis, selection and evaluation of safeguards, cost–benefit analysis, management decision, and safeguard identification and implementation, along with ongoing effectiveness review.
Risk management provides a mechanism to the organization to ensure that executive management knows current risks, and informed decisions can be made to use one of the risk management principles: risk avoidance, risk transfer, risk mitigation, or risk acceptance.
The 4 ways of dealing with risks are: Avoidance, Transfer, Mitigation, Acceptance
The following answers are incorrect:
Risk assignment. Is incorrect because it is a distractor, assignment is not one of the ways to manage risk.
Risk reduction. Is incorrect because there was a deviation of the security policy. You could have some additional exposure by the fact that you deviated from the policy.
Risk containment. Is incorrect because it is a distractor, containment is not one of the ways to manage risk.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 8882-8886). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition. and Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 10206-10208). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.