Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0484

Which one of the following represents an ALE calculation?

A.
single loss expectancy x annualized rate of occurrence.
B. gross loss expectancy x loss frequency.
C. actual replacement cost -proceeds of salvage.
D. asset value x loss expectancy.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the dollar amount that would be lost if there was a loss of an asset. Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is an estimated possibility of a threat to an asset taking place in one year (for example if there is a change of a flood occuring once in 10 years the ARO would be .1, and if there was a chance of a flood occuring once in 100 years then the ARO would be .01).
The following answers are incorrect:
gross loss expectancy x loss frequency. Is incorrect because this is a distractor. actual replacement cost -proceeds of salvage. Is incorrect because this is a distractor. asset value x loss expectancy. Is incorrect because this is a distractor.

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0483

Who should direct short-term recovery actions immediately following a disaster?

A.
Chief Information Officer.
B. Chief Operating Officer.
C. Disaster Recovery Manager.
D. Chief Executive Officer.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The Disaster Recovery Manager should also be a member of the team that assisted in the development of the Disaster Recovery Plan. Senior-level management need to support the process but would not be involved with the initial process.
The following answers are incorrect:
Chief Information Officer. Is incorrect because the Senior-level management are the ones to authorize the recovery plan and process but during the initial recovery process they will most likely be heavily involved in other matters.
Chief Operating Officer. Is incorrect because the Senior-level management are the ones to authorize the recovery plan and process but during the initial recovery process they will most likely be heavily involved in other matters.
Chief Executive Officer. Is incorrect because the Senior-level management are the ones to authorize the recovery plan and process but during the initial recovery process they will most likely be heavily involved in other matters.

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0482

Which of the following best describes what would be expected at a "hot site"?

A.
Computers, climate control, cables and peripherals
B. Computers and peripherals
C. Computers and dedicated climate control systems.
D. Dedicated climate control systems

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A Hot Site contains everything needed to become operational in the shortest amount of time.
The following answers are incorrect:
Computers and peripherals. Is incorrect because no mention is made of cables. You would not be fully operational without those.
Computers and dedicated climate control systems. Is incorrect because no mention is made of peripherals. You would not be fully operational without those.
Dedicated climate control systems. Is incorrect because no mentionis made of computers, cables and peripherals. You would not be fully operational without those.
According to the OIG, a hot site is defined as a fully configured site with complete customer required hardware and software provided by the service provider. A hot site in the context of the CBK is always a RENTAL place. If you have your own site fully equipped that you make use of in case of disaster that would be called a redundant site or an alternate site.
Wikipedia: “A hot site is a duplicate of the original site of the organization, with full computer systems as well as near-complete backups of user data.”
References:
OIG CBK, Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery Planning (pages 367 -368) AIO, 3rd Edition, Business Continuity Planning (pages 709 -714) AIO, 4th Edition, Business Continuity Planning , p 790. Wikipedia –http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hot_site#Hot_Sites

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0481

How often should a Business Continuity Plan be reviewed?

A.
At least once a month
B. At least every six months
C. At least once a year
D. At least Quarterly

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

As stated in SP 800-34 Rev. 1: To be effective, the plan must be maintained in a ready state that accurately reflects system requirements, procedures, organizational structure, and policies. During the Operation/Maintenance phase of the SDLC, information systems undergo frequent changes because of shifting business needs, technology upgrades, or new internal or external policies.
As a general rule, the plan should be reviewed for accuracy and completeness at an organization-defined frequency (at least once a year for the purpose of the exam) or whenever significant changes occur to any element of the plan. Certain elements, such as contact lists, will require more frequent reviews.
Remember, there could be two good answers as specified above. Either once a year or whenever significant changes occur to the plan. You will of course get only one of the two presented within you exam.
Reference(s) used for this question: NIST SP 800-34 Revision 1

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0480

In what way can violation clipping levels assist in violation tracking and analysis?

A.
Clipping levels set a baseline for acceptable normal user errors, and violations exceeding that threshold will be recorded for analysis of why the violations occurred.
B. Clipping levels enable a security administrator to customize the audit trail to record only those violations which are deemed to be security relevant.
C. Clipping levels enable the security administrator to customize the audit trail to record only actions for users with access to user accounts with a privileged status.
D. Clipping levels enable a security administrator to view all reductions in security levels which have been made to user accounts which have incurred violations.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Companies can set predefined thresholds for the number of certain types of errors that will be allowed before the activity is considered suspicious. The threshold is a baseline for violation activities that may be normal for a user to commit before alarms are raised. This baseline is referred to as a clipping level.
The following are incorrect answers: Clipping levels enable a security administrator to customize the audit trail to record only those violations which are deemed to be security relevant. This is not the best answer, you would not record ONLY security relevant violations, all violations would be recorded as well as all actions performed by authorized users which may not trigger a violation. This could allow you to indentify abnormal activities or fraud after the fact.
Clipping levels enable the security administrator to customize the audit trail to record only actions for users with access to user accounts with a privileged status. It could record all security violations whether the user is a normal user or a privileged user.
Clipping levels enable a security administrator to view all reductions in security levels which have been made to user accounts which have incurred violations. The keyword “ALL” makes this question wrong. It may detect SOME but not all of violations. For example, application level attacks may not be detected.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 1239). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition. and TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0479

Which of the following is the BEST way to detect software license violations?

A.
Implementing a corporate policy on copyright infringements and software use.
B. Requiring that all PCs be diskless workstations.
C. Installing metering software on the LAN so applications can be accessed through the metered software.
D. Regularly scanning PCs in use to ensure that unauthorized copies of software have not been loaded on the PC.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The best way to prevent and detect software license violations is to regularly scan used PCs, either from the LAN or directly, to ensure that unauthorized copies of software have not been loaded on the PC.
Other options are not detective.
A corporate policy is not necessarily enforced and followed by all employees.
Software can be installed from other means than floppies or CD-ROMs (from a LAN or even downloaded from the Internet) and software metering only concerns applications that are registered. Source: Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, Chapter 3: Technical Infrastructure and Operational Practices (page 108).

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0478

If an organization were to monitor their employees' e-mail, it should not:

A.
Monitor only a limited number of employees.
B. Inform all employees that e-mail is being monitored.
C. Explain who can read the e-mail and how long it is backed up.
D. Explain what is considered an acceptable use of the e-mail system.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Monitoring has to be conducted is a lawful manner and applied in a consistent fashion; thus should be applied uniformly to all employees, not only to a small number. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 9: Law, Investigation, and Ethics (page 304).

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0477

What setup should an administrator use for regularly testing the strength of user passwords?

A.
A networked workstation so that the live password database can easily be accessed by the cracking program.
B. A networked workstation so the password database can easily be copied locally and processed by the cracking program.
C. A standalone workstation on which the password database is copied and processed by the cracking program.
D. A password-cracking program is unethical; therefore it should not be used.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Poor password selection is frequently a major security problem for any system’s security. Administrators should obtain and use password-guessing programs frequently to identify those users having easily guessed passwords.
Because password-cracking programs are very CPU intensive and can slow the system on which it is running, it is a good idea to transfer the encrypted passwords to a standalone (not networked) workstation. Also, by doing the work on a non-networked machine, any results found will not be accessible by anyone unless they have physical access to that system.
Out of the four choice presented above this is the best choice. However, in real life you would have strong password policies that enforce complexity requirements and does not let the user choose a simple or short password that can be easily cracked or guessed. That would be the best choice if it was one of the choice presented.
Another issue with password cracking is one of privacy. Many password cracking tools can avoid this by only showing the password was cracked and not showing what the password actually is. It is masking the password being used from the person doing the cracking.
Source: National Security Agency, Systems and Network Attack Center (SNAC), The 60 Minute Network Security Guide, February 2002, page 8.

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0476

Which of the following questions are least likely to help in assessing controls covering audit trails?

A.
Does the audit trail provide a trace of user actions?
B. Are incidents monitored and tracked until resolved?
C. Is access to online logs strictly controlled?
D. Is there separation of duties between security personnel who administer the access control function and those who administer the audit trail?

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Audit trails maintain a record of system activity by system or application processes and by user activity. In conjunction with appropriate tools and procedures, audit trails can provide individual accountability, a means to reconstruct events, detect intrusions, and identify problems. Audit trail controls are considered technical controls. Monitoring and tracking of incidents is more an operational control related to incident response capability.
Reference(s) used for this question:
SWANSON, Marianne, NIST Special Publication 800-26, Security Self-Assessment Guide for Information Technology Systems, November 2001 (Pages A-50 to A-51).
NOTE: NIST SP 800-26 has been superceded By: FIPS 200, SP 800-53, SP 800-53A You can find the new replacement at: http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/PubsSPs.html However, if you really wish to see the old standard, it is listed as an archived document at: http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/PubsSPArch.html

Systems Security Certified Practitioner – SSCP – Question0475

Which of the following is not a preventive operational control?

A.
Protecting laptops, personal computers and workstations.
B. Controlling software viruses.
C. Controlling data media access and disposal.
D. Conducting security awareness and technical training.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Conducting security awareness and technical training to ensure that end users and system users are aware of the rules of behaviour and their responsibilities in protecting the organization’s mission is an example of a preventive management control, therefore not an operational control. Source: STONEBURNER, Gary et al., NIST Special publication 800-30, Risk management Guide for Information Technology Systems, 2001 (page 37).