Project Management Professional (PMP) Exam Practice – Question1612

The buyer has negotiated a cost-plus-incentive fee contract with the seller. The contract has a target cost of $300,000, a target fee of $40,000, a share ratio of 80/20, a maximum fee of $60,000, and a minimum fee of $10,000. If the seller has actual costs of
$380,000, how much fee will the buyer pay?


A.
$104,000
B. $56,000
C. $30,000
D. $24,000

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Explanation:
Comparing actual costs with the target cost shows an $80,000 overrun. The overrun is shared 80/20 (with the buyer’s share always listed first). In this case 20% of $80,000 is $16,000, the seller’s share, which is deducted from the $40,000 target fee. The
remaining $24,000 is the fee paid to the seller.

Project Management Professional (PMP) Exam Practice – Question1611

Contract type selection is dependent on the degree of risk or uncertainty facing the project manager. From the perspective of the buyer, the preferred contract type in a low-risk situation is______________


A.
Firm-fixed-price
B. Fixed-price-incentive
C. Cost-plus-fixed fee
D. Cost-plus-a-percentage-of-cost

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation:

Buyers prefer the firm-fixed-price contract because it places more risk on the seller. Although the seller bears the greatest degree of risk, it also has the maximum potential for profit. Because the seller receives an agreed-upon amount regardless of its costs, it is
motivated to decrease costs by efficient production.

Project Management Professional (PMP) Exam Practice – Question1610

Which term describes those costs in a contract that are associated with two or more projects but are not traceable to either of them individually?


A.
Variable
B. Direct
C. Indirect
D. Semivariable

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Explanation:
The nature of an indirect cost is such that it is neither possible nor practical to measure how much of the cost is attributable to a single project. These costs are allocated to the project by the performing organization as a cost of doing business.

Project Management Professional (PMP) Exam Practice – Question1609

What doctrine causes a party to relinquish rights under a contract because it knowingly fails to execute those rights?


A.
Assignment of claims
B. Material breach
C. Waiver
D. Warranties

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Explanation:
Under the doctrine of waiver, a party can relinquish rights that it otherwise has under the contract. If the seller offers incomplete, defective, or late performance, and the buyer’s project manager knowingly accepts that performance, the buyer has waived its right to
strict performance. In some circumstances, the party at fault may remain liable for provable damages, but the waiver will prevent the buyer from claiming a material breach and, thus, from terminating the contract.

Project Management Professional (PMP) Exam Practice – Question1608

You are the project manager for the construction of an incinerator to burn refuse. Local residents and environmental groups are opposed to this project. Management agrees to move this project to a different location. This is an example of which one of the
following risk responses?


A.
Passive acceptance
B. Active acceptance
C. Mitigation
D. Avoidance

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Explanation:
Risk avoidance involves changing the project management plan to eliminate the threat entirely.

Project Management Professional (PMP) Exam Practice – Question1607

As head of the project management office, you need to focus on those items where risk responses can lead to better project outcomes. One way to help you make these decisions is to______________


A.
Use a probability and impact matrix
B. Assess trends in perform quantitative risk analysis results
C. Prioritize risks and conditions
D. Assess trends in perform qualitative risk analysis results

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation:
The probability and impact matrix can be used to classify risks according to their level of impact and to prioritize them for future quantitative analyses and responses based on their rating. Typically these risk rating rules are specified by the organization in advance
of the project. The matrix specifies combinations of probability and impact that lead to rating the risks as low, moderate, or high priority.

Project Management Professional (PMP) Exam Practice – Question1606

Assume that you are working on a new product for your firm. Your CEO learned that a competitor was about to launch a new product that has similar features to those of your project. The competitor plans to launch the product on September 1. It is now March 1.
Your schedule called for you to launch your product on December 1. Your CEO now has now mandated that you fast track your project so you can launch your product on August 1. This fast track schedule is an example of an______________


A.
Unknown risk
B. A risk taken to achieve a reward
C. A response that requires sharing the risk
D. A passive avoidance strategy

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation:
Project risk has its origin in the uncertainty that is present in all projects. Organizations and stakeholders are willing to accept varying degrees of risk, and risks that are threats to the project may be accepted if the risks are within tolerances and are in balance with
the rewards to be gained. This example of adopting a fast-track schedule is a risk taken to achieve the reward created by the earlier completion date.

Project Management Professional (PMP) Exam Practice – Question1605

Contingency planning involves______________


A.
Defining the steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur
B. Establishing a management reserve to cover unplanned expenditures
C. Preparing a stand-alone document that is separate from the overall project plan
D. Determining needed adjustments to make during the implementation phase of a project

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Explanation:
For some risks it is appropriate for the project team to make a response plan that will be executed only under certain predefined conditions if it is believed that there will be sufficient warning to implement the plan.

Project Management Professional (PMP) Exam Practice – Question1604

Which of the following is NOT an objective of a risk audit?


A.
Confirming that risk management has been practiced throughout the project life cycle
B. Confirming that the project is well managed and that the risks are being controlled
C. Evaluating the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with identified risks
D. Ensuring that each risk identified and deemed critical has a computed expected value

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Explanation:
It is not feasible or necessary to quantify every risk. Therefore, a risk audit should never have as an objective to ensure that each project risk has a computed expected value.

Project Management Professional (PMP) Exam Practice – Question1603

Assigning more talented resources to the project to reduce time to completion or to provide better quality than originally planned are examples of which one of the following strategies?


A.
Enhance
B. Exploit
C. Share
D. Contingent response

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation:
Although it might have a negative connotation, exploitation is a strategy used for risks with positive impacts where the organization wants to ensure that the opportunity is realized.